The message you are replying to and its parents are listed in the reverse order with the most recent posts first. This might not be the whole discussion thread. To read all the messages in this thread please click here.
Re: Can difference in vision be explained?
| Dan Abel | 29 Dec 2006 16:49 |
> Is there a scientific explanation for why two people with the same > prescription appear to have different levels of vision? For example, I've > read somewhere that two people who are -3 won't necessarily see the same > without glasses, one might see better/worse than the other. What factors > influence this? There are a lot of factors, for instance cataract. -3 doesn't tell how well someone sees, it is just the correction that gives best vision for that individual.
Don't pay any attention to Otis.
|
| katy | 29 Dec 2006 07:22 |
Is there a scientific explanation for why two people with the same prescription appear to have different levels of vision? For example, I've read somewhere that two people who are -3 won't necessarily see the same without glasses, one might see better/worse than the other. What factors influence this?
|