You are accessing this site in a read-only mode. For full access to all member benefits, including message posting, please login or register. Registration is completely free, simple, and takes only a few seconds.
The message you are replying to and its parents are listed in the reverse order with the most recent posts first. This might not be the whole discussion thread. To read all the messages in this thread please click here.
Re: Can difference in vision be explained?
| William Stacy | 29 Dec 2006 22:31 |
All other things being equal, pupil size is far and away the biggest determiner of unaided acuity between two myopes. Just like a camera, if you set the focus at a particular distance, changing the f-stop will profoundly affect the photo. That's why cheap cameras with tiny apertures don't really need any focusing mechanism, while expensive ones with large lenses and variable f-stops need such fine focusing. In the extreme example, take the -3 patient and have them look through a pinhole. They will be close to 20/20 without any lens at all. Take the pinhole away and they'd be lucky to get 20/200.
w.stacy, o.d.
>Is there a scientific explanation for why two people with the same >prescription appear to have different levels of vision? For example, I've [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > |
| katy | 29 Dec 2006 07:22 |
Is there a scientific explanation for why two people with the same prescription appear to have different levels of vision? For example, I've read somewhere that two people who are -3 won't necessarily see the same without glasses, one might see better/worse than the other. What factors influence this?
|
Quick links: