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Medical Forum / General / Vision / April 2007

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my son's vision

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azraii.risa@gmail.com - 18 Apr 2007 05:10 GMT
my son's vision diagnosis was OD: -2.00 + 0.50 x 180
OS: -2.00 sph

What does this mean in general? And would this be considered a
Negative 2.5, 3.5, etc? I am looking into buying my son goggles with a
somewhat corrective lense and I am not sure what to look for to best
suit him.

THANK YOU!!
Dom - 18 Apr 2007 11:11 GMT
> my son's vision diagnosis was OD: -2.00 + 0.50 x 180
> OS: -2.00 sph
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> THANK YOU!!

This means your son is short-sighted or myopic.

If you are buying swimming goggles then the closest equivalent would be
R either -1.50 or -1.75
L -2.00

Dom
Katie - 18 Apr 2007 20:48 GMT
Dom, it looks like you've subtracted the +0.50 from the -2 to get a -1.50 or -
1.75.
Does that mean then that if someone has a minus prescription with plus cyl
that it makes it less strong than a minus prescription with minus cyl?  What
if I'm -2.50 with -0.50 and my friend is -2.50 with +0.50, whose vision is
worse without glasses?  Is that 0.50 significant enough to make a big
difference?
Ms.Brainy - 18 Apr 2007 21:29 GMT
> Dom, it looks like you've subtracted the +0.50 from the -2 to get a -1.50 or -
> 1.75.
> Does that mean then that if someone has a minus prescription with plus cyl
> that it makes it less strong than a minus prescription with minus cyl?  What
> if I'm -2.50 with -0.50 and my friend is -2.50 with +0.50, whose vision is
> worse without glasses?  

I join this question.  I have noticed that there are 2 ways of writing
the same Rx for myopia (I am not familiar with other kinds of Rx, so
my question is limited to myopia with astigmatism).  It seems to me
that the 2 following Rx examples are idintical:

#1.      Sphere:  -3.00      Cyl:  -1.00
#2.      Sphere:  -4.00      Cyl:  +1.00

Mathematically speaking it doesn't make much sense, since -3-1=-4,
whereas -4+1=-3, thus the prescriptions are not equal, but I believe
that in the optomeric world they are.  Am I correct?

Moreover, would you say that this person refractive correction (I hope
I am using the proper term) is -3 or -4?
Dr Judy - 18 Apr 2007 22:22 GMT
> > Dom, it looks like you've subtracted the +0.50 from the -2 to get a -1.50 or -
> > 1.75.
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
> whereas -4+1=-3, thus the prescriptions are not equal, but I believe
> that in the optomeric world they are.  Am I correct?

# 1 means you are -3 in one meridian and -4 in the other
# 2 means you are -4 in one meridian and -3 in the other

So exactly equivalent.

> Moreover, would you say that this person refractive correction (I hope
> I am using the proper term) is -3 or -4?

You say they are -4.00 +1.00 or you say they are -3.00 -1.00.
Incorrect to use only the sphere and not the cyl.  Or you can
calculate equivalent sphere, in which

#1 gives: -3.00 + (-1/2) = -3.50
#2 gives: -4.00 + (+1/2) = -3.50

Dr Judy
Mike Tyner - 19 Apr 2007 00:21 GMT
> #1.      Sphere:  -3.00      Cyl:  -1.00
> #2.      Sphere:  -4.00      Cyl:  +1.00
>
> Mathematically speaking it doesn't make much sense, since -3-1=-4,
> whereas -4+1=-3, thus the prescriptions are not equal, but I believe
> that in the optomeric world they are.  Am I correct?

Yes. One meridian (eg vertical) is -3.00. The other meridian (horiz)
is -4.00.

You can describe this as -300-100, or -400+100. The key is the third number
you didn't list. If the first rx (in "minus cylinder form") says axis 90,
the second version ("plus cyl") is axis 180. In the optometric world, 90 is
the opposite of 180.

> Moreover, would you say that this person refractive correction (I hope
> I am using the proper term) is -3 or -4?

The concept of "spherical equivalent" averages the -3 and -4 meridians to a
spherical -3.50. That's a fair measure of how nearsighted, overall.

-MT
Ms.Brainy - 19 Apr 2007 00:29 GMT
> > #1.      Sphere:  -3.00      Cyl:  -1.00
> > #2.      Sphere:  -4.00      Cyl:  +1.00
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
>
> -MT

Wow!  I have a master degree in math, but this optometric math is
something else!  Maybe I should consider it for a Ph.D. subject, LOL!

Anyway, you Mike, Dr Judy and the others are very helpful in clearing
up some of the confusion we common folks have.  Thanks!
Dave Bell - 19 Apr 2007 02:15 GMT
>>> #1.      Sphere:  -3.00      Cyl:  -1.00
>>> #2.      Sphere:  -4.00      Cyl:  +1.00
[quoted text clipped - 18 lines]
> Wow!  I have a master degree in math, but this optometric math is
> something else!  Maybe I should consider it for a Ph.D. subject, LOL!

As another non-optometrist, with some optics background, it was puzzling
to me, too. I see the sense of it now, with the cylinder essentially
accounting for 1/2 strength when approximated as a sphere - it only
refracts on one axis.
The 90/180 degree being "opposites" is strange, but again, it makes
sense when (if I understood correctly!) you say a positive cylinder at
90 is similar to a negative cylinder at 180. Both would have a similar
effect on the observed aspect ratio - squashing one axis or stretching
the complementary one...

Dave
Ms.Brainy - 19 Apr 2007 06:53 GMT
> As another non-optometrist, with some optics background, it was puzzling
> to me, too. I see the sense of it now, with the cylinder essentially
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
> effect on the observed aspect ratio - squashing one axis or stretching
> the complementary one...

I am glad that Dave finds the sense in the "spherical equivalent", but
I am still puzzled...  Adding (or subtracting, which seems to be the
same thing in optometric math) sphere and cylinder measurements appers
to me like adding (or subtracting) apples and oranges.  My
understanding is that this "math" is an effort to express roughly the
refractive correction in one number.  Is it?

This interests me not only from a mathematical POV, but also
personally, since I am facing a cataract surgery in my right eye (my
bad eye).  I have been told that a disparity between the eyes (or the
correction?  not sure) should not be more than 2D, but I have no idea
what this "2D" represents, and on the top of it I now don't even know
whether it's the "spherical equivalent" or simply the sphere.  I will
present my troubling personal problem (and confusion) in a new thread,
perhaps tomorrow -- too late now.
Dr Judy - 24 Apr 2007 00:56 GMT
> I am glad that Dave finds the sense in the "spherical equivalent", but
> I am still puzzled...  Adding (or subtracting, which seems to be the
> same thing in optometric math) sphere and cylinder measurements appers
> to me like adding (or subtracting) apples and oranges.  My
> understanding is that this "math" is an effort to express roughly the
> refractive correction in one number.  Is it?

The sphere/cyl method of specifying Rx is shorthand and leads you to
think we are comparing apples and oranges.  If, instead of specifying
one meridian as more or less power than the other, we specified each
separately, you might understand equivalent sphere better.  So for
your -3.00 -1.00 or -4.00 +1.00 case:

Specify fully:
-3.00 axis 180 with -4.00 axis 90.  Notice we don't use the word
sphere or cyl, we simply specify the actual power along a meridian.

The equivalent sphere is then the average of the two meridians:

(-3.00 + -4.00)/ 2 = -3.50

> This interests me not only from a mathematical POV, but also
> personally, since I am facing a cataract surgery in my right eye (my
> bad eye).  I have been told that a disparity between the eyes (or the
> correction?  not sure) should not be more than 2D, but I have no idea
> what this "2D" represents, and on the top of it I now don't even know
> whether it's the "spherical equivalent" or simply the sphere.

Spherical equivalent is the measure if you are concerned about the
difference between the two eyes.  However, with cataract surgery it is
only a temporary problem that can be managed with slab off prism if
the eyes are different.   When the second eye is done then the
difference will be eliminated.

Don't worry.
Dr Judy - 18 Apr 2007 22:15 GMT
> Dom, it looks like you've subtracted the +0.50 from the -2 to get a -1.50 or -
> 1.75.
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> worse without glasses?  Is that 0.50 significant enough to make a big
> difference?

It means you are -2.50 in one meridian and -3.00 in the other; your
friend is -2.00 in one meridian and -2.50 in the other.  So likely
your vision is worse without glasses  but not by much.

Not a big difference.

Dr Judy

> --
> Message posted viahttp://www.medkb.com
Robert Martellaro - 19 Apr 2007 21:56 GMT
>my son's vision diagnosis was OD: -2.00 + 0.50 x 180
>OS: -2.00 sph
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
>THANK YOU!!

http://www.tedmontgomery.com/the_eye/glasses.html

Robert Martellaro
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Optician/Owner
Roberts Optical
Wauwatosa Wi.
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
"Science is a way of trying not to fool yourself."
- Richard Feynman
 
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