Thank you, I'll take that into consideration.  Of course, if you read my
post, you'll see that I did not ask anyone for advice.

I was just wondering; nothing anyone says regarding the definition of
blindness or what my visual acuity is, makes a difference.  I am still left
with a bad eye that is worthless without a contact lens, and then pretty
good, and a good eye, which is . . . good.

Fortunately, I am not legally blind.  With the lens I am corrected to around
20/40 or so.  My right eye needs no correction.

Dr Judy:

The problem is, if someone said he was 20/70 I would have no idea if he
has a refractive error or a neurological pathalogy resulting in low
vision. The other way around where if this person gives me his
prescription, then I can convert. If someone says he is 20/70, I will
ask for more information. If he says he is myopic then I can estimate
him to be -1.5
If another person says he is -3 and wants to know his UCVA, its 20/200
to 20/300, but usually closer to 20/200.

This would be about 20/3000, not that anyone should go without
correction for vision this bad, would be scary! Even at my -4.5 and
20/600 its an inconvinence at best without correction except for
reading, eating, showering, sleeping or if im doing nothing.

We call it functionally blind and this is when you are off the charts
or worse than 20/400 then you cant really function without correction.
Low myopes under -3 can function reasonably well without correction and
very low myopes of -1 usually only wear glasses for driving or watching
movies.

"Fortunately, I am not legally blind.  With the lens I am corrected to
around
20/40 or so.  My right eye needs no correction."

Sounds like mild amblyopia in the worse eye. What does the blur look
like in comparsion to the right eye? Is it anything like myopic blur or
some strange distortion like everything is smeared or appears dull and
of poor contrast? Someone said amblyopia blur was much like peripheral
vision in his other normal eye. Its not just blur, you cant really
focus on anything.

"I was born with two good eyes.  Starting late high school and
progresively
ever since, I'm now 56, one eye becoming myopic and the other stayed
good.
My eye doctor has no idea why and I've heard it is unusal, but not so
unusual as to be a candidate for the textbooks.  Without my contact
lens I
couldn't see the numbers of fingers a foot away, at least, not
clearly."

Has any medical reason been ruled out? Sounds like unilateral
pathalogical myopia, a degenerative disease/condition where myopia goes
out of control and only slows or stops in your 30s or 40s, some very
severe cases it never stops and myopia has been reported in the
literature to exceed thirty(30) diopters! pathalogical myopia is
usually bilateral and a serious condition that results in low vision
and blindness if myopia gets too high, the likehood of retinal, macular
and other complications become certain at some point. Your -12 is more
on the mild-moderate side of pathalogical myopia, severe cases can hit
the -20 point! Some pathalogical myopes are born myopic, I know one
that was born -10 and is now -20 with poor corrected vision and sees
pratically only light perception without correction! At -12 you can
barely count your own fingers from a foot away. Would you be able to
count them at all from a foot and a half away?