> I see someone with a minor prescription in one eye and significant in the
> other.
What, exactly, is "minor" and "significant"?
> Obviously he wears glasses all the time.
Obviously, he would *not* wear glasses. They don't work. People with a
big difference need to wear contacts. The brain is unable to "fuse" the
images together.
> If someone had a very mild
> prescription like -1 what would be the maximum difference they could tolerate
> before glasses became an everyday necessity?
My eye doctor told me that a difference in refractive need between the
two eyes of 2D often caused problems with wearing glasses.

Signature
Dan Abel
dabel@sonic.net
Petaluma, California, USA
Tod - 27 Apr 2006 21:12 GMT
>> I see someone with a minor prescription in one eye and significant in the
>> other.
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
>My eye doctor told me that a difference in refractive need between the
>two eyes of 2D often caused problems with wearing glasses.
Actually he *does* wear glasses - one lense has hardly any prescription, the
other a very strong one that sticks out behind the plastic frames.
You misunderstood my 2nd question - I meant if someone had a -1 prescription
in one eye and something stronger in the other, what would the prescription
in the other eye need to be before it was necessary to correct it fulltime?
ie how much difference can you go with?
Dan Abel - 28 Apr 2006 21:20 GMT
> >> I see someone with a minor prescription in one eye and significant in the
> >> other.
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> in the other eye need to be before it was necessary to correct it fulltime?
> ie how much difference can you go with?
You're right, I don't understand. Somebody with a big difference
*cannot* wear glasses and have binocular vision. I've been there and
done that.

Signature
Dan Abel
dabel@sonic.net
Petaluma, California, USA