> Under what conditions would the visual auras affect the left half of
> the left eye?
"Classic" migraine never involves one eye only. If it's cortical, it's in
both eyes.
If it's in one eye only, it isn't migraine, except for very rare instances
of "retinal migraine" or other forms that affect arteries other than the
PCA.
> Under what conditions would these disturbances get worse
> as you go more left in the left half of the left eye and less severe as
> you reach the middle of the left eye?
The further you go out the vascular tree, the more anoxia.
> Has there ever been a case in any migraine aura patient, where the
> patient reports blindness in the left half of the left eye getting more
> severe at the left end of his/her eye?
Again, if it is just one eye, it isn't typical migraine.
If it's just one eye you'd suspect a problem in the optic nerve or retina,
somewhere anterior to the pituitary gland.
> Has there ever been a case in any migraine aura patient, where the
> patient reports visual hallucinations [or PSEUDOhallucinations if the
> patient knows visual effects are not real] in the left half of the left
> eye getting more vivid at the left end of his/her eye?
Migraine auras can be more vivid in the peripheral vision. But they're
usually dynamic, changing over time.
> Can the visual hallucinations/distortions present in migraine auras
> make the victim dizzy even if the inner ears and parts of the brain
> directly concerned with balance are not affected by the
> vasoconstriction?
Migraine can involve more than one vessel. But lots of stressful events
produce "dizzy" sensations.
-MT
Radium - 20 Mar 2006 06:49 GMT
> > Under what conditions would the visual auras affect the left half of
> > the left eye?
> "Classic" migraine never involves one eye only. If it's cortical, it's in
> both eyes.
I thought the right visual cortex recieves info the the left eye and
the the left visual cortex receives from the right eye.
> If it's in one eye only, it isn't migraine, except for very rare instances
> of "retinal migraine" or other forms that affect arteries other than the
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> > patient knows visual effects are not real] in the left half of the left
> > eye getting more vivid at the left end of his/her eye?
> Migraine auras can be more vivid in the peripheral vision. But they're
> usually dynamic, changing over time.
True. But can certain parts of the visual field be more in the
"hallucinatory world" while leaving other regions of the visual field
in touch with reality and the same time?
> > Can the visual hallucinations/distortions present in migraine auras
> > make the victim dizzy even if the inner ears and parts of the brain
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Migraine can involve more than one vessel. But lots of stressful events
> produce "dizzy" sensations.
I guess "cerebellar migraine auras" would consist of dizziness and
other disruptions involving the sense of balance.
Mike Tyner - 20 Mar 2006 09:16 GMT
> I thought the right visual cortex recieves info the the left eye and
> the the left visual cortex receives from the right eye.
Nope. The right _field_ in each eye goes to the left brain. Google the term
"optic chiasm."
> True. But can certain parts of the visual field be more in the
> "hallucinatory world" while leaving other regions of the visual field
> in touch with reality and the same time?
I've never asked.
-MT
Radium - 21 Mar 2006 03:35 GMT
> "Classic" migraine never involves one eye only. If it's cortical, it's in
> both eyes.
But are the hallucinations different in each eye? Or does the patient
hallucinate the same thing in both eyes?