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Medical Forum / General / Vision / March 2006

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Vasoconstriction in Occipital

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Radium - 19 Mar 2006 22:35 GMT
Hi:

Lets say that each and every artery, arteriole, and capillary supplying
the right division of the part of occipital lobe in my cerebral cortex
were to go into vasospasm [leading to complete constriction] instantly
and remain like that for a week.

What symptoms would I experience in the first minute?

What symptoms would I experience in the 15 minutes?

What about in a day?

In a week?

Would there be any visual hallucinations in any of these time periods?
Unilateral or bilateral?

Thanks,

Radium
Mike Tyner - 20 Mar 2006 02:03 GMT
> Lets say that each and every artery, arteriole, and capillary supplying
> the right division of the part of occipital lobe in my cerebral cortex
> were to go into vasospasm [leading to complete constriction] instantly
> and remain like that for a week.
>
> What symptoms would I experience in the first minute?

It's logical to think you might experience zig-zag C-shapes or heat waves
like migraine aura.

But most people with posterior cerebral artery strokes don't report
hallucinations. Their chief complaint is they bump into things.

> Unilateral or bilateral?

"Bilateral homonymous hemianopsia" is the characteristic field defect for
PCA occlusion.

The visual field defects are drawn with two black "D"s occluding the RIGHT
field of each eye, if the LEFT brain was involved. Often some vision in the
center (macula) is spared, otherwide the defect is characterized by a
straight line down the middle. If it's the RIGHT field, reading is very
difficult.

In real life, the effect is not black, but "grayish" or "absent" more than
any particular shade. They bump into things.

Phantom hallucinations, like phantom limb pain, are called Charles Bonnet
syndrome (bo-NAY).

-MT, OD
Radium - 20 Mar 2006 04:11 GMT
> > Lets say that each and every artery, arteriole, and capillary supplying
> > the right division of the part of occipital lobe in my cerebral cortex
[quoted text clipped - 27 lines]
>
> -MT, OD

Under what conditions would the visual auras affect the left half of
the left eye? Under what conditions would these disturbances get worse
as you go more left in the left half of the left eye and less severe as
you reach the middle of the left eye?

Has there ever been a case in any migraine aura patient, where the
patient reports blindness in the left half of the left eye getting more
severe at the left end of his/her eye?

Has there ever been a case in any migraine aura patient, where the
patient reports visual hallucinations [or PSEUDOhallucinations if the
patient knows visual effects are not real] in the left half of the left
eye getting more vivid at the left end of his/her eye?

Can the visual hallucinations/distortions present in migraine auras
make the victim dizzy even if the inner ears and parts of the brain
directly concerned with balance are not affected by the
vasoconstriction?
Mike Tyner - 20 Mar 2006 06:27 GMT
> Under what conditions would the visual auras affect the left half of
> the left eye?

"Classic" migraine never involves one eye only. If it's cortical, it's in
both eyes.

If it's in one eye only, it isn't migraine, except for very rare instances
of "retinal migraine" or other forms that affect arteries other than the
PCA.

> Under what conditions would these disturbances get worse
> as you go more left in the left half of the left eye and less severe as
> you reach the middle of the left eye?

The further you go out the vascular tree, the more anoxia.

> Has there ever been a case in any migraine aura patient, where the
> patient reports blindness in the left half of the left eye getting more
> severe at the left end of his/her eye?

Again, if it is just one eye, it isn't typical migraine.

If it's just one eye you'd suspect a problem in the optic nerve or retina,
somewhere anterior to the pituitary gland.

> Has there ever been a case in any migraine aura patient, where the
> patient reports visual hallucinations [or PSEUDOhallucinations if the
> patient knows visual effects are not real] in the left half of the left
> eye getting more vivid at the left end of his/her eye?

Migraine auras can be more vivid in the peripheral vision. But they're
usually dynamic, changing over time.

> Can the visual hallucinations/distortions present in migraine auras
> make the victim dizzy even if the inner ears and parts of the brain
> directly concerned with balance are not affected by the
> vasoconstriction?

Migraine can involve more than one vessel. But lots of stressful events
produce "dizzy" sensations.

-MT
Radium - 20 Mar 2006 06:49 GMT
> > Under what conditions would the visual auras affect the left half of
> > the left eye?

> "Classic" migraine never involves one eye only. If it's cortical, it's in
> both eyes.

I thought the right visual cortex recieves info the the left eye and
the the left visual cortex receives from the right eye.

> If it's in one eye only, it isn't migraine, except for very rare instances
> of "retinal migraine" or other forms that affect arteries other than the
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> > patient knows visual effects are not real] in the left half of the left
> > eye getting more vivid at the left end of his/her eye?

> Migraine auras can be more vivid in the peripheral vision. But they're
> usually dynamic, changing over time.

True. But can certain parts of the visual field be more in the
"hallucinatory world" while leaving other regions of the visual field
in touch with reality and the same time?

> > Can the visual hallucinations/distortions present in migraine auras
> > make the victim dizzy even if the inner ears and parts of the brain
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Migraine can involve more than one vessel. But lots of stressful events
> produce "dizzy" sensations.

I guess "cerebellar migraine auras" would consist of dizziness and
other disruptions involving the sense of balance.
Mike Tyner - 20 Mar 2006 09:16 GMT
> I thought the right visual cortex recieves info the the left eye and
> the the left visual cortex receives from the right eye.

Nope. The right _field_ in each eye goes to the left brain. Google the term
"optic chiasm."

> True. But can certain parts of the visual field be more in the
> "hallucinatory world" while leaving other regions of the visual field
> in touch with reality and the same time?

I've never asked.

-MT
Radium - 21 Mar 2006 03:35 GMT
> "Classic" migraine never involves one eye only. If it's cortical, it's in
> both eyes.

But are the hallucinations different in each eye? Or does the patient
hallucinate the same thing in both eyes?
Mike Tyner - 20 Mar 2006 03:48 GMT
> What symptoms would I experience in the 15 minutes?

I forgot to mention - after 15 minutes without oxygen or glucose, most
cortex would be irretrievable.

Migraine spasm isn't "complete constriction".

-MT
Ronnie - 20 Mar 2006 05:18 GMT
Radium,  you asked about burns over in the Chronic
Pain Group this past week...May I ask just why are
you asking these questions?

Signature

Ronnie
  --
*When one candle burns out..
  Another is lit*

> Hi:
>
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
>
> Radium
Radium - 20 Mar 2006 06:43 GMT
> Radium,  you asked about burns over in the Chronic
> Pain Group this past week...May I ask just why are
> you asking these questions?

I guess I am just interested in very wierd science.
Teri Robert - 23 Mar 2006 08:14 GMT
Ummmmmmm, I'm not a physician, but if each and every blood vessel in a
section of your brain because completely constricted, you'd have a major
stroke in a very short period of time.

Teri

> Hi:
>
[quoted text clipped - 17 lines]
>
> Radium
 
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