I sthat so? At what point does an OD prescribe correction for it? Is it
usual for it to fluctuate between prescriptions? In the past I've been -0.25
and zero, clearly not siginificant, but when does it become so - and if
people with good vision have it too, doesn't it compromise their 'good'
vision?
>> most people with poor vision have a small amount
>> of astigmatism. (Which is why the optician doesn't need to mention it.)
>
>Most people with good vision have a small amount, too.
>
>-MT
Mike Tyner - 05 Mar 2006 18:22 GMT
>I sthat so? At what point does an OD prescribe correction for it? Is it
> usual for it to fluctuate between prescriptions?
Astigmatism alone doesn't call for correction unless there are symptoms. And
some tolerate astimatism better than others.
Most near- or farsighted prescriptions include some amount of astigmatism.
If you're wearing glasses for those, we operate on the assumption that you
want to see as well as you can, so it's included as a matter of accuracy.
> In the past I've been -0.25
> and zero, clearly not siginificant, but when does it become so - and if
> people with good vision have it too, doesn't it compromise their 'good'
> vision?
Sure. But it isn't as "compromising" as you might think. I have a fair
amount of astigmatism, and it enables me to read a computer screen at my age
when presbyopia would otherwise have wiped me out. Therefore it makes my
vision "better than it should be" up close.
Although astigmatism does produce some blur, it can be adaptive.
-MT