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Medical Forum / General / Vision / August 2005Prism changed from one eye to the other
Hi, For the last five years (3 checks) I have had a prism included in my prescription (1 OUT in the LEFT eye). I have just had another eye-check (18 months after last check) and my new prescription shows the prism in the RIGHT eye, 1 OUT. On querying this, I have been told that for small variations it does not matter which eyeglass has the prism. Is this a reasonable explanation? Also, as I always use my old glasses for occasional use, will the continuous swapping from right to left have any impact? Thank you for your views Regards Ron > Is this a reasonable explanation? Also, as I always use my old glasses > for occasional use, will the continuous swapping from right to left > have any impact? It isn't very important which lens has the prism in it. It only matters with both eyes open, and it's only the difference between the lenses that matters. Prism adds thickness to one edge of the lens, so an optician might engineer it into the thinner lens, regardless of the written prescription. -MT Very clear and reassuring. Thanks Mike I slightly disagree, and tend to consider, in order of relative importance: If there is a strong dominancy, I tend to put the prism in the non-dominant eye. If there is a fixation disparity, I always ask if one eye's image is displaced more than the other. If so, I put it all in the deviating eye, if not, I split the prism equally between the two eyes. If one eye has better best corrected visual acuity, I will put all the prism in the less correctible eye. Finally, if one lens is stronger than the other, I tend to put the prism in the weaker lens, unless the prism will actually make either lens thinner. Other than those considerations, I agree it doesn't matter. Oh, except I would NEVER change the laterality of a prismatic correction without a reason to do so... w.stacy, o.d. > > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > >
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