What is the difference, technically, between a reading plus lens and
distance plus lens in prescriptions? A +2.00 is written the same
whether for distance or reading yet they are not the same, so how is
the distinction made? If no notation is made that they are reading
glasses, are they automatically made for distance? And how would a
single vision plus rx be written for intermediate needs -as a distance
lens or near lens?
Thanks,
C. (hyperopia/presbyopia)
otisbrown@pa.net - 15 Aug 2005 22:28 GMT
Dear Calw,
The "preventive" plus lens is sold in
the stores -- with no prescription
required.
If you wrote a prescription for
it -- it would be
+2 diopters, astigmatism zero and, and therefore no "angle".
The preventve plus is intended only for
use to keep distant vision clear -- for
young children. It is not a "quick fix",
and the parents who wish to
help their children avoid nearsighedness
should understand it in that manner.
Some ODs now support the concept
by using the plus (before their
childeren even become nearsighted).
This IS THE SECOND OPINION.
You can find furthter reference
for this at:
www.chinamyopia.org
The "majority opinion" ODs on
sci.med.sci will post their
own opinions shortly.
Best,
Otis
(Preventive engineer)
Dan Abel - 15 Aug 2005 23:04 GMT
> The "preventive" plus lens is sold in
> the stores -- with no prescription
> required.
And here foolish little me thought they sold those for use as reading glasses!
> Otis
> (Preventive engineer)
Are you trying to prevent people from becoming engineers, or are you
seriously claiming that your area of expertise as an engineer is
prevention?

Signature
Dan Abel
Sonoma State University
AIS
dabel@sonic.net
A Lieberman - 16 Aug 2005 01:31 GMT
> Dear Calw,
>
> The "preventive" plus lens is sold in
> the stores -- with no prescription
> required.
Dear Calway,
Please disregard Otis's postings. He is not in the medical profession and
not in any position to give medical advise.
Thank you!
Allen
p.clarkii@gmail.com - 16 Aug 2005 03:47 GMT
wtf!
what a stupid reply. Otis you are a moron.
+2.00 glasses used for reading are exactly the same as +2.00 glasses
used for hyperopes. the only difference would be the pupillary
distance (PD). for readers the PD is set for near work while in
hyperopes the PD is set for distance.
Dan Abel - 15 Aug 2005 22:32 GMT
> What is the difference, technically, between a reading plus lens and
> distance plus lens in prescriptions? A +2.00 is written the same
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> single vision plus rx be written for intermediate needs -as a distance
> lens or near lens?
I'm not a professional here, but I'm absolutely sure that they are
identical. The only difference is in their use. The same +2.00 lens can
be used for distance,intermediate or close depending on what your eye
needs.

Signature
Dan Abel
Sonoma State University
AIS
dabel@sonic.net
William Stacy - 15 Aug 2005 22:59 GMT
Technically, the only difference is the polar separation, or the
distance between the optical centers, which is 2 to 4 mm larger in
distance Rxs and smaller in near Rxs (due to the eyes' convergence when
viewing close objects).
w.stacy, o.d.
>What is the difference, technically, between a reading plus lens and
>distance plus lens in prescriptions? A +2.00 is written the same
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>
>
calway8@aol.com - 16 Aug 2005 00:23 GMT
> Technically, the only difference is the polar separation, or the
> distance between the optical centers, which is 2 to 4 mm larger in
> distance Rxs and smaller in near Rxs (due to the eyes' convergence when
> viewing close objects).
>
> w.stacy, o.d.
OK. I was wondering why, if they were the same, "reading" is indicated
on the script, and I noticed online sellers require you to check off if
the glasses are to be used for distance or near.
Thanks for the info.
Cal
William Stacy - 16 Aug 2005 00:26 GMT
I hope they are asking for pupillary distances. If so, that's good.
Unlike the store bought (OTC) glasses where one size "fits" all. Not
good, since human p.d.s range from 50 mm to over 70 mm, and that can
make a big difference...
w.stacy, o.d.
>
>
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>
>
Mike Tyner - 16 Aug 2005 00:29 GMT
> What is the difference, technically, between a reading plus lens and
> distance plus lens in prescriptions?
Only the interpupillary distance, the "PD."
> A +2.00 is written the same
> whether for distance or reading yet they are not the same, so how is
> the distinction made? If no notation is made that they are reading
> glasses, are they automatically made for distance? And how would a
Normally prescriptions are written in the form of a bifocal, essentially two
prescriptions, far and near, and opticians calculate the "near"
prescription.
It's the PD that makes it clear. As you've read, the pupil distance is a
little smaller for near prescriptions.
Not all doctors record a PD or specify it on the written prescription. When
they do, it's usually written "64/61" for distance/near.
If I were prescribing single-vision reading glasses, I might write it as
"+2.00." But to specify them as reading glasses, I'd have to specify a PD,
or I'd write "use near PD" or "NVO" (near vision only).
> And how would a single vision plus rx be written
> for intermediate needs -as a distance
> lens or near lens?
Either the Rx would specify a PD, or it would say "use intermediate PD."
In practice, at +/-2.00 level, a millimeter or two of horizontal PD doesn't
make much difference. Standard male and female PDs are used in
over-the-counter reading glasses and they're ok for "most people."
A good optician will question you about how you're using the glasses and
measure PD as necessary.
-MT, OD