> If the optician will do a remake for free, that is fine. I don't know of any
> law that requires it.
As there is not any law that requires the prescribing O.D. from having
to refund the exam fee or paying for a lens done outside his/her
office
for a re-make.
> If not, the customer is morally and legally entitled to pursue remedies
> under the law as a result of the negligence of the OD office.
Morally?? Don't confuse negligence with rx re-do's. There is, and
always
will be, rx re-do's due to lab errors, mis-measurements and the like.
Doesn't mean there was negligence (look it up).
> But having dealt with a lot of people trying to get a copy of my Rx in OD
> offices, I would not be surprised if it was done on purpose.
So what experiences have you had that would make you make such an
offensive statement (the "done on purpose part")?? And why would
you ever patronize these providers if that's what you thought??
Again, Geez.
frank
Mark A - 16 Mar 2005 21:20 GMT
> > If the optician will do a remake for free, that is fine. I don't know
> of any
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> office
> for a re-make.
Yes there is, under consumer protection law and contract law (both statutory
and common law) which protect people from negligent services (or in the case
of products it would be implied warranties of fitness for a particular
purpose and merchantability). These are the same laws that allow one to sue
a doctor for negligence (malpractice), or sue a an auto mechanic for
negligence when attempting to repair a car. Anyone who provides a product or
service has a reasonable duty to perform without acting negligently.
> > If not, the customer is morally and legally entitled to pursue
> remedies
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> will be, rx re-do's due to lab errors, mis-measurements and the like.
> Doesn't mean there was negligence (look it up).
Making a transcription error on an Rx is negligence if it is not corrected
for free. If the error is corrected without the patient incurring any
additional charges (including a lens remake if necessary) then there is no
basis for a claim against the provider.
In the case of an error on a drug Rx that caused the patient harm, then one
could sue for negligence if the error was not discovered until the after the
harm to the patient was done.
For glasses, the patient has a reasonable duty to tell the optician if the
glasses are not acceptable before wearing them could cause any harm or
damages to the patient.
> > But having dealt with a lot of people trying to get a copy of my Rx
> in OD
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
>
> frank
I do not know if it was done on purpose in the situation of the OP. I said
"I would not be surprised."
I usually get eye exams from an independent OD who is not associated with an
optical shop (except for their own small shop). I have always found it
difficult to leave the office after the exam with an Rx in hand when I don't
purchase glasses from the OD's office.
But I know my rights, so it does not bother me that much if I have to demand
the Rx from them. But if I knew of an OD office that was more polite about
this, I would consider it, but it is difficult to shop around for this sort
of thing when one only visits an OD once every 1-2 years, and one does not
find out until the exam is over (as to how hard it is to get the Rx in
hand).
All the problems I have had are with the assistants or clerical staff. I
doubt that the OD's know everything that their own staff does or how the
staff treats their customers. I am sure the staff is told to encourage the
patient to purchase glasses from the OD, because every customer is probably
worth about $100 average net profit on for each pair of glasses sold (not
including fixed salary and overhead expenses).