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Medical Forum / General / Vision / November 2004

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Unable to correct to 20/20

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Tom - 28 Nov 2004 00:15 GMT
I recently had an (eyeglass) exam and was told that the best that I
could be corrected to in one eye was 20/25 or so, that my eye would
not accept enough correction. The suggested lens i -1 with slight
astigmatism. (My other eye can be brought to 20/15).

I don't understand.  My limited understanding of optics says it should
be correctable.  Why not??
Mike Tyner - 28 Nov 2004 01:25 GMT
>I recently had an (eyeglass) exam and was told that the best that I
> could be corrected to in one eye was 20/25 or so, that my eye would
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> I don't understand.  My limited understanding of optics says it should
> be correctable.  Why not??

There is usually a reason, but it isn't always detectable in a routine eye
exam.

If you can see better than 20/25 through a pinhole, then the refraction is
off, or there's some irregularity in the shape of your cornea that can't be
corrected with lenses, like a subtle distortion from corneal dystrophy.

Small corneal scars and early cataracts can limit vision in subtle ways.
These are usually detectable with the slit lamp microscope.

Sometimes vitreous floaters obscure your vision, existing as faint sheets or
veils that aren't obvious, even with a dilated examination.

Mild macular edema, early retinal gliosis, and subtle optic nerve disease
can be difficult to see in a quick examination.

Presumably your doctor found no explanation, or he would have told you. You
could pursue another eye examination and mention this problem as your chief
complaint. But most of the problems mentioned above have no specific
treatment.

The first thing is to compare your vision with your spectacle lens to the
vision you get through a pinhole. If the pinhole is better for small details
far away, consider going back for a repeat of the refraction.

-MT, OD
Mark A - 28 Nov 2004 05:08 GMT
> I recently had an (eyeglass) exam and was told that the best that I
> could be corrected to in one eye was 20/25 or so, that my eye would
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> I don't understand.  My limited understanding of optics says it should
> be correctable.  Why not??

20/20 is an statistical norm for human vision, not an objective
determination of perfect vision. Some people can be corrected to better than
20/20 and some worse than 20/20. It has more to do with biology than
physics, since you are merely comparing your vision to the average of other
humans.
Tom - 28 Nov 2004 14:35 GMT
Does that imply that the resolution of the retina is "poor"?  After
all, a lens can be made to properly focus on an object.

>> I recently had an (eyeglass) exam and was told that the best that I
>> could be corrected to in one eye was 20/25 or so, that my eye would
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>physics, since you are merely comparing your vision to the average of other
>humans.
Mark A - 28 Nov 2004 17:07 GMT
> Does that imply that the resolution of the retina is "poor"?  After
> all, a lens can be made to properly focus on an object.

When you look at an eye chart, your eyes can be properly focused on all the
lines, but each person can only see lines that are large enough for them to
make out. At some point the lines are too small for anyone to see. This
limitation is not related to focus, although if your vision were not
corrected properly and you had a focusing problem, that would make it worse.
Repeating Rifle - 28 Nov 2004 20:26 GMT
> Does that imply that the resolution of the retina is "poor"?  After
> all, a lens can be made to properly focus on an object.

That is not quite true. Ordinary lenses will correct for focus and
astigmatism and possible prism. In most cases that is good enough. But as
Mike Tyner pointed out, cataracts and other defects may produce more random
errors not easily corrected. These are often called higher order
aberrations. The new wavefront lasik can, in principle, correct for some of
these errors. In the optics of lenses rather than eyes, that process is
called *figuring*. That is how the Hubble telescope was saved But that has
many limitations as well. These include additional aberrations introduced if
you are not looking in the design's direction.

When I had a cataract, my crystalline lens was granular even though it was
still reasonably transparent. My biggest problem came from multiple images
produced by these granularities. There is no practical way to correct vision
defects arising from such defects. The corrective lens, even if it is a
shaping of the cornea is too far away from the defect to compensate
accurately.

I am not a health professional.

Bill
RM - 29 Nov 2004 01:55 GMT
It is also possible that the image is correctly focused on the retina, yet
the brain does not process the information to that level of detail.  This
happens in amblyopes.  You can have an eye with 20/20 optics yet the brain
does not perceive that level of detail due to suppression or other
neuropsychological reasons.

----

> Does that imply that the resolution of the retina is "poor"?  After
> all, a lens can be made to properly focus on an object.
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>>other
>>humans.
Otis Brown - 29 Nov 2004 22:01 GMT
Dear Friend,

In general I believe that "amblyopia" is defined
as an eye that can not be "corrected" to 20/20.

I further believe that this is "genetic", in
the fact that the situation is found with
one or two eyes.  Once you have it, you
can not get rid of it.

If you previously had 20/20, and now 20/25
then the reasons are not genetic.

Best,

Otis
Engineer

> It is also possible that the image is correctly focused on the retina, yet
> the brain does not process the information to that level of detail.  This
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> >>other
> >>humans.
Mike Tyner - 30 Nov 2004 00:11 GMT
> In general I believe that "amblyopia" is defined
> as an eye that can not be "corrected" to 20/20.

If you're lecturing us on medical conditions, you might want to get it
right.

Amblyopia is clinically defined as vision that cannot be corrected to 20/20
*in the absence of detectable pathology.*

> I further believe that this is "genetic", in
> the fact that the situation is found with
> one or two eyes.

Expounding your beliefs again, rather than facts. Amblopia is neither
genetic nor congenital. It is seldom found in both eyes, but when it is,
toxicity or other bilateral causes are usually present.

>Once you have it, you
> can not get rid of it.

Should we should stop treating it because you believe it can't be treated?

> If you previously had 20/20, and now 20/25
> then the reasons are not genetic.

Corneal dystrophies are genetic. Keratoconus is genetic. Many other genetic
conditions produce mild distortions of vision.

-MT
RM - 30 Nov 2004 01:53 GMT
> I further believe that this (i.e. amblyopia) is "genetic",

Wrong!

> If you previously had 20/20, and now 20/25
> then the reasons are not genetic.

Really, there are genetic eye disorders that result in diminished acuity
over time.

I guess they didn't teach you that in engineering school.  But isn't that
the point anyway-- what kind of training or experience do you have that
qualifies you to give people advise about vision problems!!

Go design a better vacuum cleaner.  Any you won't find me or any other
eyecare professional posting advise to you in the newsgroup
alt.engineering.vacuum !!

============

> Best,
>
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
>> >>other
>> >>humans.
Otis Brown - 30 Nov 2004 15:44 GMT
Dear no-name,

I made a statement about how
amblyopia was determined.

There are other MEDICAL situations
that indeed prevent a lens from
producing 20/20 -- even though
the image is sharp on the retina.

Since we don't know who you are,
the people can take your statement
for what it is worth.

Further, making a stement
IS NOT PROVIDING MEDICAL ADVICE,
NOR IS ANY ACTION TO BE TAKEN
ON THE BASIS OF MY STATEMENT.

Best,

Otis
Engineer

> > I further believe that this (i.e. amblyopia) is "genetic",
>
[quoted text clipped - 50 lines]
> >> >>other
> >> >>humans.
LarryDoc - 30 Nov 2004 17:24 GMT
Readers please note:

Otis Brown posts his ridiculous, unsupported theory to this newsgroup
over and over again, day after day. Over a thousand times thus far.
Numerous doctor practitioners and vision scientists have clearly and
precisely debunked his argument, yet he persists in trying to attract
the gullible.

That which those of us with vision science background post here is based
on proven, tested repeatable, clinically observed (thousands if not
hundreds of thousands of times) real data.

This is very much unlike "Otis", who invents theories, creates
terminology to fit it, and "reports" "findings" based on two individuals
who may or may not exist.

Please do not reply to "Otis" posts.

Please see the weekly posting "welcome to sci.med.vision" which appears
on Mondays for information on how to filter out his posts so that you
may be able to participate in worthwhile discussion in this forum.

Thank you for your cooperation and understanding.
Dan Abel - 30 Nov 2004 22:18 GMT
> Dear Friend,
>
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> If you previously had 20/20, and now 20/25
> then the reasons are not genetic.

I believe that this post exactly exemplifies the posts that Otis makes to
this group.  He relies on a belief system (see the word "believe" in the
first two paragraphs).  Scientific fact is accepted as long as it supports
his beliefs.  If it doesn't, then it is irrelevant.  Where he doesn't have
beliefs or knowledge, then he just makes stuff up (the third paragraph).

Signature

Dan Abel
Sonoma State University
AIS
dabel@sonic.net

Rishi Giovanni Gatti - 29 Nov 2004 22:42 GMT
> It is also possible that the image is correctly focused on the retina, yet
> the brain does not process the information to that level of detail.  This
> happens in amblyopes.  You can have an eye with 20/20 optics yet the brain
> does not perceive that level of detail due to suppression or other
> neuropsychological reasons.

Wow, what a real interesting statement!!!
 
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