Sorry for not understanding....my case out to be BACTERIAL.

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Makaveli - 15 Apr 2004 00:13 GMT

Sorry for not believing many of you on this board.
It maybe that 5% is really bacterial prostatitis and we are that 5%. I
did not believe that I was, for a long time. All my Urinalysis would
come out NEG for bacteria, and I would assume it was not there. I had
over 5 urinalysis/cultures. Well, I just had my 6th. Unfortunately,
it says "Susceptability listed below...... 10,000 - 50,000
Organisms/ML, Escherichia Coli". But in the Urinalysis it says
"Bacteria NONE", WBC=0, RBC=0. Can you believe this? I guess its a
bacteria thats hard to culture?

Makaveli

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avocet - 15 Apr 2004 19:22 GMT

Makaveli;

If it isn't too much of a hassle, have a seminal fluid culture done, at
least 5 days in duration. You might get a better read.

I do believe that at least a sorry 5 percent of us do have recurrent
bacterial prostatitis.

Jim

> Sorry for not believing many of you on this board.
> It maybe that 5% is really bacterial prostatitis and we are that 5%. I
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>
> Makaveli

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Robert - 15 Apr 2004 21:30 GMT

> Makaveli;
>
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>
> Jim

The question then becomes are people with CPPS more susceptible to infection
or is it the primary infection the cause of CPPS? Do people with BPH have an
increse in infections or does anyone with a damaged prostate make them more
susceptible to infection?
My quess is that anyone with a damaged UTI is more susceptiable to
infection. Just the interference with the flow dynamics can cause problems.
Pee flow isn't as forceful as in one without problems.

> > Sorry for not believing many of you on this board.
> > It maybe that 5% is really bacterial prostatitis and we are that 5%. I
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> >
> > Makaveli

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Makaveli - 15 Apr 2004 23:41 GMT

> Makaveli;
>
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> >
> > Makaveli

I have had it in the past. It has showed up negative. So has the other
5 urinalysis/cultures. I think they may have messed up this order and
contaminated it. Either way, i am gonna get tested again. I have 2
cultures on their way, 1 before prostate massage, 1 after. I am thinkn
of getting an RNA test on my urine and semen.

Hopefully, I ll see what this shows, and see if it was something that
they messed up in the lab, or if i really have it. My URO this morning
said, that it is not considered an infection, its not 10^5 organisms,
and the Urinalysis looks good. So I dont understand it. How can a
urinalysis show no sign of infection or bacteria and the culture show
it. Unless it got contaminated.

Makaveli

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Robert - 16 Apr 2004 03:40 GMT

> > Makaveli;
> >
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>
> Makaveli

A culture is exactly that in which the bacteria are allowed to multiply for
one, two, three days making them visible. A urinalysis is different. There
are other indicators of infection on the urinalysis and not simply the
presence of bacteria. There are other indicators of contamination besides
bacterial numbers also.
As far as the RNA, you really mean DNA, and you don't need it if you have
that many bacteria and he ignores it because they are under 10^5. It proves
the point that positive, meaning the presence of one single DNA from one
single non viable bacteria does not prove anything. A culture is more
meaningful because you can evaluate the number.

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