> Hi, a friend of mine asked me a question, and honestly I just don't
> have time to figure out the answer, despite several internet searches.
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>
> Thanks in advance for any info that can be provided.
Many times products (as different salts) are produced by companies for
'marketing' purposes, e.g., Pfizer/Roerig (Roerig was a subsidiary
ompany) -- Atarax (antihistamine) as the hydrochloride, Vistaryl
(tranquilizer) as the pamoate. Same drug.
Other reasons might be for 'getting-around' other company's patents (can't
think of an example at the moment).
An excerpt from a website
(http://www.rxlist.com/cgi/generic3/propoxnap.htm ) states: Propoxyphene
napsylate differs from propoxyphene hydrochloride in that it allows more
stable liquid dosage forms and tablet formulations. Because of differences
in molecular weight, a dose of 100 mg (176.8 µmol) of propoxyphene napsylate
is required to supply an amount of propoxyphene equivalent to that present
in 65 mg (172.9 µmol) of propoxyphene hydrochloride.
Again the same drug. Therapeutically, I believe there is no significant
difference.
HankG
GFX - 31 Jul 2006 01:00 GMT
Thank you; that makes sense. And I agree that there isn't any significant
difference in performance. The drug almost seems to cause more adverse
effects than clinically desirable effects, from what I've observed over the
years. Then again, some people think it's the best thing since chocolate
ice cream - go figure. Anyway, thanks for the info.
Gary
>> Hi, a friend of mine asked me a question, and honestly I just don't
>> have time to figure out the answer, despite several internet searches.
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>
> HankG