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Medical Forum / General / General / August 2004

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Health insurances in the US - how do they work?

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ifsnduhdfi - 28 Aug 2004 03:01 GMT
Hi there,
I'm a foreigner and I still don't understand how the healthcare works in
the US.

A few questions:
If I get an insurance with $30 co-payment or the like, can I go to
specialists also, as many times as I want, and pay just $30? Can I
choose a different specialist each time by my own? Can I do it without
first going to a generic doctor?

What if I go to a specialist to hear a second opinion on a cronic
illness that I have (a pre-existing condition): would I "anyway pay just
$30 since it's just an office visit", or it would be "not covered, since
it's pre-existing" and I would have to pay 100% of the specialist's
visit out of my pocket?

How does it work with the prescriptions here? The patient pays a
co-payment for the office visit and then another co-payment for the
prescription and then a % on the actual cost of the medicines, is this
correct?

TIA
ifsnduhdfi - 28 Aug 2004 04:15 GMT
Please read the previous questions as referred to PPOs, thanks.
Griffin - 28 Aug 2004 05:16 GMT
> Hi there,
> I'm a foreigner and I still don't understand how the healthcare works
> in the US.

Good luck. Most Americans don't understand how it works either.

There is no single answer to *any* of your questions. In fact, almost
every question you asked could be answered "It depends", because the
precise answer will vary depending upon the *type* of insurance plan in
effect. There are as many different variations as there are insurance
plans. However, there are some common threads, and I will attempt to
answer your question with some basic assumptions.

> If I get an insurance with $30 co-payment or the like, can I go to
> specialists also, as many times as I want, and pay just $30?

First of all, in order to have health insurance at all, you must pay a
monthly premium. For a typical family, this may be in excess of
$800/month. Fortunately, many employers (read: companies) subsidize
health insurance for their employees, so your monthy out-of-pocket cost
will probably be much lower. However, you'll probably have to pay
*something* apart from what your employer gives you if your family is
to be covered, and under some plans, you may have to pay something
out-of-pocket to have yourself covered, buy your employer will pay the
difference. It just depends.

As far as copayments are concerned, you may have to pay a copayment of
say, $25 to see your primary care physician, $35 for a specialist, $75
for an emergency room visit, etc. You'll have to pay this amount each
time you're seen. Sound like a bargain? Well, it is...but you'd be
surprised at how many people think it's not.

> Can I choose a different specialist each time by my own?

It depends. First of all, why would you? Second of all, many insurance
companies require that you see doctors who participate with your
insurance, which wil limit your options. Many require referral from
your primary care physician. PPO plans give you more flexibility to
choose a doctor or to self-refer to a specialist, but many specialists
require a referral from a primary care doctor (apart from what  your
insurance company may require) in order to cut down on the bullshit
visits.

> Can I do it without first going to a generic doctor?

I don't know what you mean by a "generic doctor." If you mean a primary
care doctor, see above.

> What if I go to a specialist to hear a second opinion on a cronic
> illness that I have (a pre-existing condition): would I "anyway pay
> just $30 since it's just an office visit", or it would be "not covered,
> since it's pre-existing" and I would have to pay 100% of the
> specialist's visit out of my pocket?

Huh? "Pre-existing" is insurance company doubletalk for an illness that
you had before you took out the policy, and typically one that they
won't cover. In these cases, you won't be reimbursed for any charges
related to the non-covered ("pre-existing") condition(s). In most other
cases, you'll have no trouble obtaining a second opinion, but the copay
situation won't be any different than it would be any other time.

> How does it work with the prescriptions here? The patient pays a
> co-payment for the office visit and then another co-payment for the
> prescription and then a % on the actual cost of the medicines, is this
> correct?

Again, it depends. Most pharmacy benefits plans emply a tiered
co-payment scheme, whereby low-cost generic drugs carry a copayment of,
say, $10, while second-tier (brand-name) drugs carry a co-payment of,
say, $20, and third-tier (read: expensive) drugs may carry a co-payment
of, say, $35. There are an infinite number of variations on this theme,
and they change all the time.

Confused? Join the club.
SpamFree - 28 Aug 2004 05:57 GMT
>Hi there,
>I'm a foreigner and I still don't understand how the healthcare works in
>the US.

>A few questions:

>If I get an insurance with $30 co-payment or the like, can I go to
>specialists also, as many times as I want, and pay just $30? Can I
>choose a different specialist each time by my own? Can I do it without
>first going to a generic doctor?

I think they prefer the term "PCP" or "Primary Care Physician".

It depends on the plan. Some allow you to go directly to the
specialist: others require a referral from a PCP. In most cases the
PCP and the specialist have to be "in" your plan and if they're not
that $30 goes up considerably...unless it's an emergency...or other
travel-related reasons...or...there's lots of exceptions and
restrictions. Read the plan.

BTW $30 as a co-payment sounds high, many are $10, and then there are
ones that are $0 but you have to see a specific MD...it's all in the
plan.

>What if I go to a specialist to hear a second opinion on a cronic
>illness that I have (a pre-existing condition): would I "anyway pay just
>$30 since it's just an office visit", or it would be "not covered, since
>it's pre-existing" and I would have to pay 100% of the specialist's
>visit out of my pocket?

Normally there's a period of open enrollment most often when you're
first employed at this job and then once a year for a month (yeah,
yeah: check the plan). If you sign up during these times pre-existing
conditions don't count: otherwise you have to convince the MD to put a
diagnosis code that doesn't indicate a pre-existing condition...or pay
the full cost (sometimes less: check the plan <g>).

>How does it work with the prescriptions here? The patient pays a
>co-payment for the office visit and then another co-payment for the
>prescription and then a % on the actual cost of the medicines, is this
>correct?

Depends on the plan. Some don't even cover drugs at all; others cover
100% especially for chronic illnesses like diabetes. A reasonable plan
might charge you a flat fee for a month's supply (or three if you go
to their mail-order pharmacy). The fee might be $50 for brand-name and
$25 for generic.

BTW getting a look at the plan documents is about as easy as seeing
the battle plans for the next country the US is going to invade.
They're both closely guarded secrets. You'll have to console yourself
with some publicity blurbs but because your questions are simple the
blurbs will probably answer most of them.
ifsnduhdfi - 28 Aug 2004 22:15 GMT
Thanks for the good replies

A few more questions:

- How much does a doctor's office visit cost in US on average (both for
Primary Care Physician and a Specialist please) if I don't have an
insurance?

- If at the visit it turns out that I didn't actually have anything
(that would be diagnosed as "hypocondriasis" I suppose), will the
insurance deny the payment for the visit claiming that it was "not
medically necessary"?

- Suppose this situation: I have an insurance and I go to a doctor of
the PPO. At the visit it turns out that I have to pay the full cost of
the visit because it's precondition or not medically necessary or anyway
not covered by the insurance.
In this case will the visit be the same price as not having the
insurance at all, or it will be discounted (and by how much % ?) because
the doctor belonged to the PPO so they have anyway agreed on a reduced
price?

TIA!
Bob - 29 Aug 2004 02:16 GMT
>Thanks for the good replies
>
>A few more questions:

What is the context of you asking?

If you have insurance, e.g. through your employer, the only answer
that matters is the one from that insurer. Ask them.

If are trying to choose among plans, ask each one.

It is common that you may be able to choose among plans. Paying more
gives you more coverage.

bob
Griffin - 29 Aug 2004 02:51 GMT
> - How much does a doctor's office visit cost in US on average (both for
> Primary Care Physician and a Specialist please) if I don't have an
> insurance?

A huge "it depends." The fee will vary depending on geographic region,
type of physician, and length and complexity of the office visit. Many
physicians will offer discounts off their regular fee schedule for
patients who pay cash, or at least may "downcode" to make it more
affordable. Generally, we're probably talking somewhere between $30 and
$150, not including any lab work, x-rays, procedures, etc.

> - If at the visit it turns out that I didn't actually have anything
> (that would be diagnosed as "hypocondriasis" I suppose), will the
> insurance deny the payment for the visit claiming that it was "not
> medically necessary"?

Nobody would code "hypochondriasis." They'd code symptoms, and the
insurance company would likely cover the visit.

> - Suppose this situation: I have an insurance and I go to a doctor of
> the PPO. At the visit it turns out that I have to pay the full cost of
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> because the doctor belonged to the PPO so they have anyway agreed on a
> reduced price?

You'd have to ask the doctor in question. If it's a hypothetical
question, there's no answer...sorry.
Griffin - 29 Aug 2004 03:05 GMT
>> - Suppose this situation: I have an insurance and I go to a doctor of
>> the PPO. At the visit it turns out that I have to pay the full cost of
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> You'd have to ask the doctor in question. If it's a hypothetical
> question, there's no answer...sorry.

OK, wait a sec...I think I understand now. Generally, a physician's
office has one fee schedule. When they contract with an insurance
carrier, they are contractually obligated to accept the insurance
carrier's fees, even if they're less than the physician's published fee
schedule (and they almost always are). However, in cases where a
service is not covered by the insurance carrier (cosmetic procedures or
in your example, a denied service because of a pre-existing condition),
the patient will be billed based on the physician's published fee
schedule. If the doctor offers a discount for cash (some do, some
don't), you could potentially pay less. However, you will *not* be
billed based on your insurance carrier's fee schedule, since those fees
only apply to *covered* services paid by your insurer. By definition, a
denied service is not covered.
Kurt Ullman - 29 Aug 2004 13:25 GMT
>carrier's fees, even if they're less than the physician's published fee
>schedule (and they almost always are). However, in cases where a
>service is not covered by the insurance carrier (cosmetic procedures or
>in your example, a denied service because of a pre-existing condition),
>the patient will be billed based on the physician's published fee
>schedule.

This, too is a "depends". Not covered you are generally right. If it
is something that is generally covered but isn't in your case
because of pre-existing conditions, it still MIGHT be billable only
at the negotiated fee. Again ask the company.

If the doctor offers a discount for cash (some do, some
>don't), you could potentially pay less. However, you will *not* be
>billed based on your insurance carrier's fee schedule, since those fees
>only apply to *covered* services paid by your insurer. By definition, a
>denied service is not covered.
     Again, this may not always be the case. If it is something
that is excluded (many cosmetic procedures) then, yeah. However, if
it is something that is usually covered but  isn't in your case
because of pre-existing conditions (say allergy shots) then they
might still be required to charge you only what they would have
gotten from the company.

--
    A moral compass needs a butt end. Whatever direction France is pointing--
from collaboration with the Nazis, acccomodation with the Communists,
existentialism, Jerry Lewis or a UN resolution veto-- we can go the other way
with a quiet conscience.
                  --PJ O'Rourke
Griffin - 29 Aug 2004 14:08 GMT
> If it is something that is excluded (many cosmetic procedures) then,
> yeah. However, if it is something that is usually covered but  isn't in
> your case because of pre-existing conditions (say allergy shots) then
> they might still be required to charge you only what they would have
> gotten from the company.

No, and here's why. Let's say my charge for "Service X" is $25. When I
negotiated a contract with "ABC Insurance Co.", I agreed to only accept
$15 for this service. I also agreed not to charge patients anything
above and beyond that amout for that specific covered service. This
prevents what is known as "balance billing", where "ABC Insurance Co."
would pay their $15, and I would charge the patient for the remaining
$10 to recoup my usual fee of $25 for "Service X." With most insurance
contracts, this is expressly prohibited. Again, this is for *covered
services* (meaning services being reimbursed by "ABC Insurance Co."
under the terms of my contract with them). So, when I see a patient who
is covered by "ABC Insurance Co." and perform "Service X", I actually
bill the insurance company $25...but the company only pays me $15 as
per our contract. The $10 difference is "written off" as billed but not
collected, and is shown on our accounting documents as a "discount".
However, when the insurance company refuses to pay for the service AT
ALL (meaning that it's not covered), the patient is billed $25 just
like the insurance company was, except that since there is no
discounted fee-for-service contract in place between the patient and
the doctor, the patient is expected to pay the full amount.
Griffin - 29 Aug 2004 14:29 GMT
> So, when I see a patient who is covered by "ABC Insurance Co." and
> perform "Service X", I actually bill the insurance company $25...but
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> in place between the patient and the doctor, the patient is expected to
> pay the full amount.

I mentioned discounts for cash earlier. In the above scenario, most
doctors would probably not offer the cash discount at this point. The
reason being that the justificaton for offering discounts for cash in
the first place is that the physican's office will not have to incur
the overhead of billing and processing an insurance claim, and thus can
accept less than the usual fee if it is paid in full up-front in cash.
Since we're talking about a service that has already been billed to the
insurance company, denied (and probably re-billed at least once,
usually at the patient's request), and ultimately re-billed to the
patient, the doctor's office has already spent a considerable amount of
time (and time is money) trying to collect the bill. Thus, there is no
reason to offer a discount for cash at this point. In fact, for truly
miniscule dollar amounts, the doctor may have actually spent more money
trying to collect the bill than the amount of the charge itself! Had
the patient known in advance that the service would not be covered,
they may have had the option to pay in cash and receive a discount if
the doctor had such an option in place (again, not everyone does), but
probably not now.
 
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