Why do surgeons insist upon a clearance by the patient's internist
prior
to operative procedures? I can understand insisting upon tests for
anemia, clotting, diabetes, EKG, etc.
His cardiologist who handles his arrhythmia and pacemaker cleared him
for that purpose but said he needed to see a general internist.
I worked with my father to have two surgeries done (carpal tunnel and
laparoscopic repair of inguinal and incisional hernias).
I remember the office of the Carpal Tunnel surgeon insisted that he
see
a "Medical Doctor." I was thinking of a flippant remark, doesn't Dr.
XXX have an M. D. after his name and what does that stand for?
But in all seriousness, all surgeons go through general medical
training
before specializing. Why do they do so if they can't evaluate
routine blood tests and make a decision whether the patient is ready
for
surgery? (Of course, should
something come up, they would refer the patient to the appropriate
physician as needed, e. g. for a stress test or the like.)
Is this a symptom of our malpractice crisis that the doctors want
someone
else to point a finger at if the patient dies on the operating table
and
the family sues? Is this a way that internists can make money--I know
that certain surgeons regularly refer patients to specific internists.
Or is there a real reason for this?
Dr. Laurence Leff, 309 367 0787
Mark & Steven Bornfeld - 16 Jul 2009 19:25 GMT
> Why do surgeons insist upon a clearance by the patient's internist
> prior
[quoted text clipped - 30 lines]
>
> Dr. Laurence Leff, 309 367 0787
There are any number of reasons. Chief among these is the
specialization concept itself. Sure, a dermatologist learned how to
read an EKG and listen to heart sounds. But he/she may not have done
that in 30 years.
Having a generalist do a systems evaluation gives better results. It
probably also saves money, as similar services provided by a specialist
are likely to be more costly. It may also be a requirement of the
insurance company.
Steve

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