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Medical Forum / General / General / March 2008

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Conversion factor for lab values

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JohnDoe@WrongISP.gov - 10 Mar 2008 06:33 GMT
I realize that you'll think that I failed high school math -- maybe
even grade school -- but I'm having lots of difficulty converting
pg/mL (picograms per milliliter) into ng/dL (nanograms per deciliter).
This is not helped by Google results that do lots of handwaving and in
one case seem to confuse nanograms (ng) with milligrams (mg), a rather
critical typo if that's really what it is.

So could someone please give me a formula in an easy-to-understand
format such as:

"To find nanograms per deciliter multiply picograms per milliliter by
'n'." An example might help too.

TIA
Bob - 11 Mar 2008 03:21 GMT
>I realize that you'll think that I failed high school math -- maybe
>even grade school -- but I'm having lots of difficulty converting
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>"To find nanograms per deciliter multiply picograms per milliliter by
>'n'."

The short answer is: DIVIDE by 10.

It's not something you missed from math, but from chemistry.
Dimensional analysis, a name for a type of unit conversions, doing one
step at a time, methodically. It really helps with more complex cases.

For an example of a good presentation, see
http://oakroadsystems.com/math/convert.htm

But typing dimensional analysis is not easy, so let's try to walk thru
it "logically", but slowly.

First, do one thing at a time. Do not try to convert pg/mL to ng/dL.
Convert pg to ng. And convert mL to dL.

pg --> ng. ng is a bigger unit, so we need fewer of them. 1000 times
bigger, so we need 1/1000 as many of them. So, divide by 1000.

mL --dL. dL is bigger, 100 times bigger. So divide by 100. But this
unit is in the denominator, so that becomes multiply by 100.

Summary: Divide by 1000 and mult by 100. Overall, divide by 10.

Writing out a more formal dimensional analysis does the above, but
keeps the numbers and the up/down straight for you.

bob
bae@cs.toronto.no-uce.edu - 11 Mar 2008 03:26 GMT
>I realize that you'll think that I failed high school math -- maybe
>even grade school -- but I'm having lots of difficulty converting
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
>"To find nanograms per deciliter multiply picograms per milliliter by
>'n'." An example might help too.

The trick in handling units and unit conversions is 'do arithmetic
with the units'. Like so:

1 nanogram = 1000 picograms
1 deciliter = 100 milliliters

or

    1 nanogram        1 deciliter
    ----------        -----------
    1000 picograms        100 milliliters

so if you've got 42 pg/ml and you want to convert to ng/dl, you do it
like this:

    42 pg/mL * 1ng/1000pg * 100 mL/1dL =

    42 * (pg * 1 * ng * 100 * mL)
       -------------------------  =
       (mL * 1000 * pg * 1 * dL)

    42 * (pg/pg * mL/mL * 1 * 100 * ng/dL) / 1000

i.e. you 'cancel out' the units as if they were algebraic symbols and
you get:

    42 * (100/1000)ng/dL = 42 * 0.1ng/dL

    or
   
    42 pg/mL = 4.2 ng/dL

This is a general method that's based on the notion that n/n is always
one.  Note that it's very useful when stuff comes in all kinds of units
as in undergrad (or high school) physics problems, where they give you
all kinds of numbers and the result has to be e.g. work or acceleration
or whatever.  If you carry the units along, and the result comes out in
the wrong kind of units, you know you set it up wrong or made anotehr
mistake somewhere.

If you're unfamiliar with the metric system, learn the list of prefixes
such as milli, micro, nano, etc  and what they mean in powers of ten,
but this method works for all kinds of conversions in or between any
systems.

I hope this helps you with this and any future conversion problems!
JohnDoe@WrongISP.gov - 12 Mar 2008 04:18 GMT
>>I realize that you'll think that I failed high school math -- maybe
>>even grade school -- but I'm having lots of difficulty converting
>>pg/mL (picograms per milliliter) into ng/dL (nanograms per deciliter).

<snip>

>I hope this helps you with this and any future conversion problems!

Thanks to both you and Bob for your easy-to-understand explanations.

Now that you've done that perhaps you could help me with the reason
for the needed conversion: I read on various websites that my
testosterone/estrogen ratio should be around 20:1 ... or 50:1 if I'm a
teenager... or some number in between... Like most of these things the
number is remarkably vague. I would imagine that you have to convert
the values to the same base but if we do that...

My total T is 740 ng/dL and total estrogens are 57 pg/mL so converting
the estrogens to ng/dL we get 5.7 which as a ratio is 130:1! Yikes!
(BTW the RR for total E is 40 - 115 so it's not like I'm that
bizarre). Well, maybe these ratio pushers are using E2 (estradiol)
instead of total E but in that case it's even stranger. My E2 is 32
pg/mL so converted it becomes 3.2 ng/dL to give a ratio of 231:1!
Weird!

If I don't convert using total E (57) I get a ratio of 13:1 which
would seem more reasonable given the "ratio pushers" claimed 20:1 or
50:1 but is this a valid way of doing a ratio like this? Just use the
raw numbers without regard to what they represent?

One medline abstract (Japanese IIRC) reported that they converted.
They specifically stated that they did for ratio calculation and also
said that but that other numbers in their study were in the normal
units. However most of the ratio proponents are in the "dogmatic rules
with absolutely no evidence" category (nutrition and life extension
types) and none of them spell out the results of having a high or low
ratio. For ex: at 10:1 you'll watch at least one chick flick per week
and love cuddling; at 50:1 you'll look like Arnold Schwartzenegger in
his prime and actually carve notches in the bedposts. (Just joking!)  

Any suggestions or should I just give up?
Bob - 12 Mar 2008 05:25 GMT
>Now that you've done that perhaps you could help me with the reason
>for the needed conversion:

...

>Any suggestions or should I just give up?

Please ask your doctor about this. S/he knows why your hormones were
measured, and can help you interpret them in your personal context.

The people most likely to give you a direct answer to your question
here are those least qualified to do so.

bob
JohnDoe@WrongISP.gov - 13 Mar 2008 03:31 GMT
>>Now that you've done that perhaps you could help me with the reason
>>for the needed conversion:

>>Any suggestions or should I just give up?

>Please ask your doctor about this. S/he knows why your hormones were
>measured, and can help you interpret them in your personal context.

>The people most likely to give you a direct answer to your question
>here are those least qualified to do so.

>bob

You might be good at conversion formula but you obviously know zilch
about MD's. Their knowledge regarding hormones is about as good as my
knowledge of nuclear physics (i.e., abysmal) which is due at least in
part to the lack of knowledge of the subject by the appropriate
research people (those who write the textbooks and papers for
medline). The other major factor is the speed, quantity and complexity
of the changes since the MD went to school even if he graduated last
week. I feel sorry for them for their inability to keep up; I feel far
less sorry when they undeservedly claim authority (or you do it on
their behalf).

My hormones were measured because I told my PCP to write a
prescription for the lab to do the work. He might not write me an Rx
for Oxycontin but short of that (and similar) he'll do pretty much
what I tell him. That's the way it should be; it's my money and body
after all.

As to your comment regarding the low qualifications of those likely to
answer, that may or may not be the case. The best reply would be from
someone who has already investigated the issue and has some personal
or authoritative information. Maybe not likely on sci.med especially
due to the crank factor but it does occur on other groups (e.g.
sci.med.prostate.bph). If you don't ask you'll never know.
Robert1 - 13 Mar 2008 07:21 GMT
On Mar 12, 7:31 pm, John...@WrongISP.gov wrote:
> >>Now that you've done that perhaps you could help me with the reason
> >>for the needed conversion:
[quoted text clipped - 7 lines]
> You might be good at conversion formula but you obviously know zilch
> about MD's.

I think I know quite a bit about MD's and their use of the clinical
laboratory involving hormone testing.

Their knowledge regarding hormones is about as good as my
> knowledge of nuclear physics (i.e., abysmal)

Not quite true as hormone issues are fairly common.

which is due at least in
> part to the lack of knowledge of the subject by the appropriate
> research people (those who write the textbooks and papers for
> medline).

Research is not clinical medical practice. Research is exactly that
research meaning it's unsubstantiated preliminary findings that must
be confirmed by more or larger studies in order to validate such
findings.

The other major factor is the speed, quantity and complexity
> of the changes since the MD went to school even if he graduated last
> week. I feel sorry for them for their inability to keep up; I feel far
> less sorry when they undeservedly claim authority (or you do it on
> their behalf).

Medicine does not change overnight and in fact is very slow to change.
Certainly not from one week to another. The specialist educate the
generalist of which they receive referrals from. You are not really
involved in medicine.

> My hormones were measured because I told my PCP to write a
> prescription for the lab to do the work. He might not write me an Rx
> for Oxycontin but short of that (and similar) he'll do pretty much
> what I tell him. That's the way it should be; it's my money and body
> after all.

Unfortunately you got what you paid for meaning somebody who does what
you tell him to and then disregards your lab ordered report or plays
dumb to shut you up. I would like to think that as the alternative
being he really isn't that bright and would do anything you suggested
which is why you picked him. Again you got what you wanted. An
endocrinologist would have thrown you out of his office for demanding
anything.

> As to your comment regarding the low qualifications of those likely to
> answer, that may or may not be the case. The best reply would be from
> someone who has already investigated the issue and has some personal
> or authoritative information. Maybe not likely on sci.med especially
> due to the crank factor but it does occur on other groups (e.g.
> sci.med.prostate.bph). If you don't ask you'll never know.

Without any clinical context then one can not provide anything useful.
I personally find it hilarious that you have to come here to find
conversion factors that should have already been included in the
report if they were important. Testosterone and estradiol ratios are
not reported as you can tell from your report. The fact is
testosterone is almost always either free testosterone or total
testosterone and virtually never with a estradiol included. Estradiol
is for the ladies. I have seen more HCG's on males, which is rare in
and of itself and never an estradiol, done on a male. This tells me
that the ratio isn't in clinical use but research tools that have been
used for many years in which to characterize hormonal levels in
studied subjects and as stated clinical use is entirely different.
JohnDoe@WrongISP.gov - 14 Mar 2008 04:30 GMT
>On Mar 12, 7:31 pm, John...@WrongISP.gov wrote:
>> >>Now that you've done that perhaps you could help me with the reason
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
>> >The people most likely to give you a direct answer to your question
>> >here are those least qualified to do so.

>> You might be good at conversion formula but you obviously know zilch
>> about MD's.

>I think I know quite a bit about MD's and their use of the clinical
>laboratory involving hormone testing.

Your opinion. Based on the rest of what you say, I maintain mine.

>Their knowledge regarding hormones is about as good as my
>> knowledge of nuclear physics (i.e., abysmal)

>Not quite true as hormone issues are fairly common.

The issues might be common; the knowledge is poor. [I'm really only
talking about the sex hormones. I'll plead lack of knowledge about the
rest. Hopefully they're better informed about those although my gut
feel says they aren't.]

> which is due at least in
>> part to the lack of knowledge of the subject by the appropriate
>> research people (those who write the textbooks and papers for
>> medline).

>Research is not clinical medical practice. Research is exactly that
>research meaning it's unsubstantiated preliminary findings that must
>be confirmed by more or larger studies in order to validate such
>findings.

Research is where the cutting edge is. Research includes those larger
studies. Most textbooks these days include massive footnotes that
reference where the textbook-writer got his information (the research
studies). The textbooks and studies form the theoretical and
most-of-the-time practical knowledge of the current state-of-the-art
in clinical practice.

>The other major factor is the speed, quantity and complexity
>> of the changes since the MD went to school even if he graduated last
>> week. I feel sorry for them for their inability to keep up; I feel far
>> less sorry when they undeservedly claim authority (or you do it on
>> their behalf).

>Medicine does not change overnight and in fact is very slow to change.

The basis changes very rapidly (all those studies and new editions of
textbooks) but you're right, the clinician is slow to change and thus
out-of date. Just what I said.

>Certainly not from one week to another. The specialist educate the
>generalist of which they receive referrals from. You are not really
>involved in medicine.

As a consumer I am. You, however, seem to live in a fantasy world that
resembles the UK. Specialists educating the PCP...ROTFL  ... maybe in
medical school.

>> My hormones were measured because I told my PCP to write a
>> prescription for the lab to do the work. He might not write me an Rx
>> for Oxycontin but short of that (and similar) he'll do pretty much
>> what I tell him. That's the way it should be; it's my money and body
>> after all.

>Unfortunately you got what you paid for meaning somebody who does what
>you tell him to and then disregards your lab ordered report or plays
>dumb to shut you up. I would like to think that as the alternative
>being he really isn't that bright and would do anything you suggested
>which is why you picked him.

Hmmm. That must be why he makes New York magazine's list of best
physicians (internal medicine) year after year.

> Again you got what you wanted. An
>endocrinologist would have thrown you out of his office for demanding
>anything.

Any endocrinologist who didn't do what I wanted would be fired very
quickly. (Just think of what you're saying here: The supplier of whom
you're requesting a service has the gall to "throw you out of his
office for demanding anything." Is there any other industry where such
an attitude would be tolerated, even condoned and supported by some
customers?)

>> As to your comment regarding the low qualifications of those likely to
>> answer, that may or may not be the case. The best reply would be from
>> someone who has already investigated the issue and has some personal
>> or authoritative information. Maybe not likely on sci.med especially
>> due to the crank factor but it does occur on other groups (e.g.
>> sci.med.prostate.bph). If you don't ask you'll never know.

>Without any clinical context then one can not provide anything useful.

Sure they can. Making a statement like that is effectively saying (for
example) that it's useless reading "Endocrine Replacement Theory in
Clinical Practice" (Contemporary Endocrinology series by A.Wayne
Meikle) ... that the theory is not important.

>I personally find it hilarious that you have to come here to find
>conversion factors that should have already been included in the
>report if they were important.

Why would the lab include those? They don't offer such. Moreover the
reason for the query about the conversion factor was to see (on a
theoretical basis) if I was doing the right conversion, so bizarre
were the results. Further, the underlying basis for interest in the
ratios has to do with the cutting edge theory (or conjecture) --not
mine -- that BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) has less to do with
the level of DHT than with a surfeit of estrogens, the estrogens
protecting the cells from apoptosis. I hardly think a commercial lab
would have a test based on an as-yet-not-firmly-established theory.

> Testosterone and estradiol ratios are
>not reported as you can tell from your report. The fact is
>testosterone is almost always either free testosterone or total
>testosterone and virtually never with a estradiol included.

Nonsense. Estrogens are essential to male health. If MD's don't
request them it's just another example of poor (and obsolete)
medicine. Moreover due partially to the poor performance of labs in
determining free T, the currently used (or should be used) tests are
for bioavailable T. This includes free T and the portion bound to
albumin, the latter being able to disassociate itself easily. Some
(probably most) MD's are still agonizing over total T (see above
regarding up-to-date).

> Estradiol
>is for the ladies.

Really! Try driving your E down to zero for a few years. Your loss of
BMD should change that attitude. Other nasty things will occur too.

> I have seen more HCG's on males, which is rare in
>and of itself and never an estradiol, done on a male.

Huh! HCG is Human Chorionic Gonadatrophin a drug/biologic agent used
to effect an increase in T without resorting to replacement, a
technique of major importance when it comes to fertility. The only
uses of a test for endogenous HCG is in pregnant females and a minor
use in males for the confirmation of testicular tumors. Nothing to do
with what we're talking about.

> This tells me
>that the ratio isn't in clinical use but research tools that have been
>used for many years in which to characterize hormonal levels in
>studied subjects and as stated clinical use is entirely different.

See above.
Robert1 - 14 Mar 2008 08:30 GMT
On Mar 13, 8:30 pm, John...@WrongISP.gov wrote:
> >I think I know quite a bit about MD's and their use of the clinical
> >laboratory involving hormone testing.
>
> Your opinion. Based on the rest of what you say, I maintain mine.

My opinion based on thirty years of performing clinical laboratory
work involving endocrinology. You are welcome to yours but mine is
evidence based and experience based.

> >Their knowledge regarding hormones is about as good as my
> >> knowledge of nuclear physics (i.e., abysmal)
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> rest. Hopefully they're better informed about those although my gut
> feel says they aren't.]

Again the emphasis is on clinical medical terms and not esoteric
physiology that really isn't clinically relevant. I am more aware of
the clinically relevant medical context.

> > which is due at least in
> >> part to the lack of knowledge of the subject by the appropriate
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> most-of-the-time practical knowledge of the current state-of-the-art
> in clinical practice.

Look up any medical text books involving clinical endocrinology. I
don't know what text books you refer to. Yes indeed there are many
books although most do not reflect the latest research because of the
problems associated with cutting edge research. It reminds me of the
Noble laureate who others could not replicate his works and he was
forced to withdraw his paper in Nature magazine. It takes years to
write medical texts and the fresh off the press research is only
mentioned as curiosities and not as common clinical practice.

> >The other major factor is the speed, quantity and complexity
> >> of the changes since the MD went to school even if he graduated last
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> textbooks) but you're right, the clinician is slow to change and thus
> out-of date. Just what I said.

It takes years to write a text and by the time it comes out in press
it is five years behind the present research. That isn't necessarily
bad as most research doesn't pan out, is redundant or not better than
what was is presently in use. Something must be better than what is in
present use. The present use has the advantage of many years in
clinical practice and all the warts are known.

> >Certainly not from one week to another. The specialist educate the
> >generalist of which they receive referrals from. You are not really
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> resembles the UK. Specialists educating the PCP...ROTFL  ... maybe in
> medical school.

The PCP sends patients to the specialist and reports are handed to the
PCP on how to deal with the case. The PCP must and does learn to deal
with general internal medical issues. The take care of the whole
patient in which the specialist only really has limited knowledge in.
If you thought it was so funny then why didn't you go to an
endocrinologist and not your PCP?

> >> My hormones were measured because I told my PCP to write a
> >> prescription for the lab to do the work. He might not write me an Rx
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Hmmm. That must be why he makes New York magazine's list of best
> physicians (internal medicine) year after year.

I don;t think he made it by having you ordering tests and then him not
understanding them.

> > Again you got what you wanted. An
> >endocrinologist would have thrown you out of his office for demanding
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> an attitude would be tolerated, even condoned and supported by some
> customers?)

No wonder you go to PCP for that and not an endocrinologist and so you
are left wondering.

> >I personally find it hilarious that you have to come here to find
> >conversion factors that should have already been included in the
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> protecting the cells from apoptosis. I hardly think a commercial lab
> would have a test based on an as-yet-not-firmly-established theory.

Cutting edge theory is not clinical practice again you confuse the
two. Theories are a dime a dozen. There are many tests out there which
cater to all practitioners out there. Some are FDA approved and others
are for research purposes only.

> > Testosterone and estradiol ratios are
> >not reported as you can tell from your report. The fact is
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> (probably most) MD's are still agonizing over total T (see above
> regarding up-to-date).

No one said estrogens are not essential. The clinical relevance is
what dictates laboratory use and not how essential something is. So
not all doctors, PCP and endocrinologist practicing medicine are
obsolete because they don't latch on to present theories. It's up to
the proponents of the research to prove their case from theory to
clinical relevence in the practice of medicine.

> > Estradiol
> >is for the ladies.
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> use in males for the confirmation of testicular tumors. Nothing to do
> with what we're talking about.

Now you are learning clinical relevant use. The rest is pretty much
toying with your hormones. The use of hormone assays are for the
diagnosis, treatment and monitoring of clinical conditions. Basement
experiments are for researchers playing with rats.

> > This tells me
> >that the ratio isn't in clinical use but research tools that have been
> >used for many years in which to characterize hormonal levels in
> >studied subjects and as stated clinical use is entirely different.
>
> See above.

You won't see a ratio stated if one were ever to include a TT and
Estradiol because there is no stated reference range. By law and
regulations when ever something is reported a valid and referenced
range must be reported. It isn't clinically relevant and there is no
agreed upon reference range because it's simply for research purposes.
You got the tests done but no ration stated for the reasons above.
When ever anything is performed for research purposes it must clearly
be stated as such and the patient must be advised if such research is
being undertaken. Performing research without a consent and cause
problems.
Bob - 14 Mar 2008 03:03 GMT
>>>Now that you've done that perhaps you could help me with the reason
>>>for the needed conversion:
[quoted text clipped - 32 lines]
>due to the crank factor but it does occur on other groups (e.g.
>sci.med.prostate.bph). If you don't ask you'll never know.

I appreciate many of the points you made. Of course, points we make
here very briefly are likely to be simplified/exaggerated, and I won't
worry about that.

My basic point is that your physician is the place to start. S/he
should be able to "translate" the lab report into English for you, and
answer the factual parts of your questions. S/he can also give you a
professional opinion of what they mean -- in the context of your
personal situation.

I appreciate the possible value of "support groups", which exchange
info and give you ideas -- not just some crank telling you what odd
procedure to blindly follow.

Doctors do know a lot, and they are trained to think about "the whole
person". At least, in principle they are. And they do [try to] keep
up. And yes, I am being idealistic. Real doctors vary. But it is the
place to start.

As an example... You asked about normal ratios of certain components.
But then the question becomes, what if one's ratios are not quite
"normal"? It is not obvious without special knowledge that there is
any problem. I may be over-reading your intent in asking the question,
which is why I am bothering to elaborate a bit here.

bob
JohnDoe@WrongISP.gov - 14 Mar 2008 05:25 GMT
>>>bob

Hang on there, didn't I just reply to "Bob" aka Robert1? My mistake.
Obviously Bob and Robert1 are not the same. Sorry.

<snip>

>My basic point is that your physician is the place to start. S/he
>should be able to "translate" the lab report into English for you, and
>answer the factual parts of your questions. S/he can also give you a
>professional opinion of what they mean -- in the context of your
>personal situation.

I realize this is the standard/accepted/PC reply however it's
something I'd like to break people of doing [is that English?] as much
as I can. It's incorrect, at least in my experience in those areas
I've had the opportunity to study in depth. That doesn't augur well
for the MD's knowledge in those areas I haven't pursued.

There's a couple of examples in my reply to Robert1 (failure to test
for E or E2, reliance on unreliable Free T values, etc.) Getting more
esoteric (questions I could ask my MD <g>): What's the difference
between E2, E1, and E3 (functions)? If E (in general or E2 if you
prefer) can effectively occupy the sex hormone receptors in the
hypothalamus (this causes proportionate shutdown in the production of
GNRH) what is the ratio (damn those ratios <g>) of E (or E2) to T
necessary to effect the same change? IOW if I knock down my E2 by
(say) 10pg/mL how much will this raise T? (I can partially answer the
first part; to the second I'd say ask a patient/customer on a friendly
NG who has actually done it, your average MD won't have a clue.)

<snip>

>As an example... You asked about normal ratios of certain components.
>But then the question becomes, what if one's ratios are not quite
>"normal"?

Not normal, optimal! 20/40 is normal eyesight for a 60 year old;
optimal is 20/20.

No one knows what the optimal (or ideal) ratios are. The people who
are proposing them are just wildly grabbing at straws. If we work on
the basis that teenagers are the most healthy group in the population
you should either raise T or lower E to get closer to the teen ratio
subject to not putting your E levels too low for adequate
functionality. We don't know what the teenage levels are (other than
some vague dubious claims on some websites) so we need more info there
(maybe I should ask my MD? <g>) but we do have some reasonable info on
the cut off for E levels courtesy of the use of aromatase inhibitors
in females suffering from BCa. There's some info on males too.

> It is not obvious without special knowledge that there is
>any problem. I may be over-reading your intent in asking the question,
>which is why I am bothering to elaborate a bit here.

Hmmm, OK, but one doesn't necessarily have to have a problem to take
pre-emptive action.

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