Home | Contact Us | FAQ | Search & Site Map | Link to Us
Sign In | Join | Other 45 Sites in Network
Home
Discussion Groups
General
GeneralCardiologyVisionDentistryPharmacyLaboratoryNutritionAlternative
Diseases and Disorders
AIDSAlzheimer'sArthritisAsthmaCancerBreast CancerDiabetesEpilepsyGlaucomaHepatitisHerpesLupusProstate BPHProstate CancerProstatitisSinusitisTinnitus

Medical Forum / General / Laboratory / June 2006

Tip: Looking for answers? Try searching our database.

General Question About aPTT/PTT/INR

Thread view: 
Enable EMail Alerts  Start New Thread
Thread rating: 
REP - 26 Jun 2006 14:35 GMT
I have a general question about aPTT/PTT/INR testing. I don't have all
the reference range for the lab, but my results were:

aPTT 33.5 (normal up to 28)
PTT 9.8 (normal; don't know the range)
INR 1.0 (abnormal; not sure if too high or too low)

I am not on coumadin or any blood thinner. I have no known liver disease
or signs of liver disease (no jaundice) or any other reasons (no vitamin
K, no non-stop beef-eating) for these abnormal results. I am very
nephrotic and my GFR is now 84. Could kidney disease/nephrotic syndrome
cause these unusual results?

I have a call in to my doctor, but I've never failed this test before so
I'm curious as to (very general) things that can cause these results.

Signature

"Did Father shoot him? I will eat Grandfather for dinner."
- Helen Keller, on learning of the death of her grandfather

Manky Badger - 26 Jun 2006 18:06 GMT
>I have a general question about aPTT/PTT/INR testing. I don't have all
> the reference range for the lab, but my results were:
>
> aPTT 33.5 (normal up to 28)
> PTT 9.8 (normal; don't know the range)
> INR 1.0 (abnormal; not sure if too high or too low)

What makes you think the INR is abnormal?

Signature

Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com

fake name - 27 Jun 2006 06:04 GMT
I wonder if it has been written on the lab's note?
Isn't INR defined only for people in treatment thus making an INR of 1
"undefined" and thereby abnormal?
(Though of course very normal and not at all uncommon for untreated persons.
;-)  )
Manky Badger - 27 Jun 2006 17:10 GMT
>I wonder if it has been written on the lab's note?
> Isn't INR defined only for people in treatment thus making an INR of 1
> "undefined" and thereby abnormal?
> (Though of course very normal and not at all uncommon for untreated
> persons.
> ;-)  )

Well, that's entirely the problem with INRs - they *should* only be used to
control warfarin (etc) therapy and so an INR of 1 is abnormal.
However many medics today seem to use PT & INR synonymously, so whether an
INR of 1 is abnormal is anyone's guess.

Signature

Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com

kuhnfucius - 28 Jun 2006 00:09 GMT
The second value you give as the PTT isd in fact the "PT".  From my
experience PTs this low have a high probablity of association with truamatic
vienapunctures and clotted (partially) samples.  I have standing
instructions to inspect (with wooden applicator sticks) tubes of all PTs
below 10.8 seconds (especially if they are from the ED/ER.  As with all
"abnormal" results,  a repeat test is wise.  I also suspect that the
calculated INR is actuality lower and 1.0 is the lower report range in this
case.
>I have a general question about aPTT/PTT/INR testing. I don't have all
> the reference range for the lab, but my results were:
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> I have a call in to my doctor, but I've never failed this test before so
> I'm curious as to (very general) things that can cause these results.
 
Sign In
Join
My Latest Posts
My Monitored Threads
My Blog
My Photo Gallery
My Profile
My Homepage

Start New Thread
Enable EMail Alerts
Rate this Thread



©2008 Advenet LLC   Privacy Policy - Terms of Use
This website includes both content owned or controlled by Advenet as well as content owned or controlled by third parties.