Hi there.
I have had Genital HSV1 now for just over a year, As far as I know I
have not had a recurrence yet (Paranoia makes me think that any pimple
or bump below the waist might be herpes!)
Anyway back to my question.
If there are two men one with Oral herpes who has 2 or three outbreaks
a year and the other man (Me!) has genital hsv1 with maybe one
outbreak every 2 years.
Which man is more likely to pass the virus on with viral shedding?
This is hypothetical so it would be without wearing a condom.
Thanks
Burt
Grant - 28 Oct 2003 02:54 GMT
Hi Burt,
It's hard to say. I think you need to clarify a point or two.
For instance:
Man number 1 has oral type 1 and has 2 or 3 outbreaks a year.
Man number 2 has genital type 1 with infrequent outbreaks.
Who is more contagious?
First of all, the longer you have herpes, the less you shed. I don't know
if shedding increases if you have more outbreaks or not.
The man with type 1 orally is more likely to pass it on to someone else's
mouth or genitals than the man with type 1 genitally. Genital type 1 can be
passed to someone's mouth through oral sex but tends not to pass genital to
genital very easily. Also, the man with genital type 1 might shed less
because the virus is out of it's home environment. But, I really don't know
that for a fact.
ar
> Hi there.
>
[quoted text clipped - 15 lines]
>
> Burt
Angela - 28 Oct 2003 13:50 GMT
Hi Burt G,
> If there are two men one with Oral herpes who has 2 or three outbreaks
> a year and the other man (Me!) has genital hsv1 with maybe one
> outbreak every 2 years.
>
> Which man is more likely to pass the virus on with viral shedding?
Why would you be concerned about passing it on if you both have it?
Is this other man your sexual partner? If that's the case then you can't
keep passing it back and forth. Once you have it you keep it. If this other
man is not your sexual partner then I would say that both of you will
experience asymptomatic shedding at some point. It's just really hard to
tell when we are shedding because we can't see or feel that the virus is
active on the surface of the skin.
Here's some good information about type-1 and type-2 and the differences
between the two along with some site and type guidelines:
http://members.cox.net/yoshi2me/Site-Type/Site-Type.htm .
Hope this helps,
Angela
Burt G - 28 Oct 2003 20:44 GMT
Hi again
Thanks very much for everybody who replied.
I don't think I made myself totally clear (sorry folks)
I am a heterosexual male who has had genital HSV1 for just over a
year.
The second man in my question is totally fictional, but he has got
oral herpes and has 2-3 outbreaks a year (infected with the virus for
no specific period of time).
In a totally hypothetical situation where Man 1 (HSV1 genitally 1
outbreak every 2 years) and Man 2 (Oral HSV1 3 outbreaks a year) have
sexual relations with Lady 1 (which includes full oral sex) question
is: which man would be more likely to pass on the virus to the lady?
Thanks for your help
Burt
> Hi Burt G,
>
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
>
> Angela
Guy - 31 Oct 2003 00:06 GMT
The one who's shedding virus (with or without known symptoms) at the time of
the intimate contact when the shedding parts (wherever they may be) rub up
against her parts (wherever those may be).
And, no way to tell who that is, eh?
There's really no provable (nor dependable) answer to your question.
Hang in
-G
> Hi again
>
[quoted text clipped - 41 lines]
> >
> > Angela
M.L.S. - 28 Oct 2003 15:58 GMT
>Hi there.
Hi.
>I have had Genital HSV1 now for just over a year, As far as I know I
>have not had a recurrence yet (Paranoia makes me think that any pimple
>or bump below the waist might be herpes!)
The people that know claim that large numbers of people with HSV1
genitally will have only the one primary outbreak.
>Anyway back to my question.
>If there are two men one with Oral herpes who has 2 or three outbreaks
>a year and the other man (Me!) has genital hsv1 with maybe one
>outbreak every 2 years.
>Which man is more likely to pass the virus on with viral shedding?
I've always assumed that more outbreaks equals more shedding (and
therefore more risk of transfer), and it seems to me that some of the
studies of the last year or two more or less point in that direction.
However, since it's so hard to corral a study group of people and find
out when they are asymptomatically shedding (would require continuous
and expensive testing) it's only really speculation that says that the
person with fewer outbreaks is shedding less.
And when you get down to individual cases, say, if the two men above
were having sex with the same woman, I think it would be impossible to
know which one was the doner of any virus that might have transfered.
Statistics that apply to populations just can't be applied to
individual cases.
Take care,
Mike