Hello,
I was wondering if anyone knows if there is a difference between the
likelyhood of someone getting oral to oral herpes infected from a
person who has asymptomatic oral shedding compared to a person who has
genital herpes? In other words, is it more likely that someone can get
oral herpes from someone if they dont have symptoms compared to getting
genital herpes from someone if they don't have symptoms? Just curious.
Thanks,
Al
Angela S. - 11 Apr 2006 14:40 GMT
> I was wondering if anyone knows if there is a difference between the
> likelyhood of someone getting oral to oral herpes infected from a
> person who has asymptomatic oral shedding compared to a person who has
> genital herpes? In other words, is it more likely that someone can get
> oral herpes from someone if they dont have symptoms compared to getting
> genital herpes from someone if they don't have symptoms? Just curious.
Hi Al ~
Let's keep it simple. If somebody has oral herpes it's possible to pass it
through asymptomatic shedding. If somebody has genital herpes it's possible
to pass it through asymptomatic shedding.
Angela :)

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