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Medical Forum / Diseases and Disorders / Herpes / October 2005HSV-1 genital re-transmission risks
I'm a 39 year old male with HSV-1, recently confirmed with an IgG test. I have always had oral outbreaks since childhood, and have never experienced a genital outbreak. A month ago, my girlfriend noticed some small genital lesions and they tested positive for HSV-1. She had no antibodies in her blood so it's assumed that I gave her the virus though oral sex. My questions are: What are my risks of contracting genital HSV-1 if we continue to have unprotected sex? Since she has HSV-1 and I have antibodies, are these risks similar to autoinoculation, passing the virus form one part of my body to another? In terms of percentages, what are they? Any insight would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Your chances of getting genital type 1 from your girlfriend are very slim. First, because you already have it; and second, because genital type 1 rarely transfers from genital to genital. It's normal mode of transport is oral to genital or oral to oral. ar >I'm a 39 year old male with HSV-1, recently confirmed with an IgG test. > I have always had oral outbreaks since childhood, and have never [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > >Any insight would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Hi Ar, I heard that genital to genital for HSV-1 was still just as likely as genital to genital for HSV-2 if the person that has HSV-1 is having an outbreak genitally and has sex with someone that doesn't use protection and doesn't already have it. Is this still true, in terms of giving it to someone that doesn't already have it? Thanks, Al > Your chances of getting genital type 1 from your girlfriend are very slim. > First, because you already have it; and second, because genital type 1 rarely > transfers from genital to genital. It's normal mode of transport is oral to > genital or oral to oral. >if the person that has HSV-1 is having an >outbreak genitally and has sex with someone that doesn't use protection Frankly, I doubt they'd find anyone who'd care to participate in that study! lol! Seriously though, the lower risk of genital to genital type 1 transmission doesn't mean it's totally impossible. And the scenario you describe would surely mean the risk isn't as low as a "no outbreak" scenario. If there's a way to intentionally force a transfer, I think that'd be the way to do it. M2 > Hi Ar, > [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > doesn't already have it. Is this still true, in terms of giving it to > someone that doesn't already have it? Its a nightmare to answer the question since most infections are tracked in studies using serology (ie blood antibody levels) and this falls down on its face as a method for tracking infection when so many people already have HSV1 orally. THe whole thing gets compliated so you can get partial answers from restricted sample studies (ie the discordant in the couple is HSV1 negative, or tracking transmission of disease with culture) and then do some educated guesswork for the rest....but thats the limit really. Tim -- When playing rugby, its not the winning that counts, but the taking apart ICQ: 5178568 Hi Al, As the others have said: good question - no answer. All I can tell you is that it is more difficult to pass type 1 from genital to genital. Why? Many reasons I suppose. But the bottom line is that the virus isn't in its home base, so to speak. Take care, ar >Hi Ar, > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] >to >> genital or oral to oral. I guess that makes sense, but I suppose having no herpes and having sex with someone that has an outbreak without using a condom and having rough sex at that would increase the chances alot. > Hi Al, > [quoted text clipped - 24 lines] > >to > >> genital or oral to oral. Oh, forgot to mention, all normal herpes prevention should be followed even if the person has genital type 1. ar >Hi Ar, > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] >to >> genital or oral to oral. |
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