It seems to me I heard somewhere that Andrew B. Chung, MD/PhD wrote in
article <o3u5q4h2ouqat0k8jiu7l6vqv3lfts9t88@4ax.com>:
>> Andrew, in the Holy Spirit, boldly wrote:
>> >... proper names in Latin can be left in their seemingly "nominative
>> >case" form after the preposition "cum" where some may argue that
>> >changing the proper name to an "ablative case" form is more correct.
>> Reference? In some declensions the nominative and the ablative have
>> the same form, but that doesn't mean they are interchangeable.
>Did not write that they were interchangeable.
>Instead, simply wrote that proper names can remain in their seemingly
>"nominative case" in a prepositional phrase after the preposition
>"cum" even if a seemingly "ablative case" is also possible.
Which is exactly what I said you were implying. I posted cites from
two grammars showing that your statement is false.
>> [Begin]
>> Latin Grammar (Scanlon & Scanlon) Study Guide
>> Ablative prepositional phrases are used with these prepositions:
>> cum - with
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>> [End]
>> http://tinyurl.com/cldwom
>> [Begin]
>> Allen and Greenough's New Latin Grammar
>> 50. The manner of an action is denoted by the Ablative, usually with
>> cum unless a limiting adjective is used with the noun . . . .
>> 51. Accompaniment is denoted by the Ablative, regularly with cum. . .
>> .
>> [End]
>> http://www.hhhh.org/perseant/libellus/aides/allgre/allgre.594.html
>See above.
Your argument is with the four Latin grammarians whose work I cited.
>> >This in reference to writing:
>> >Solus Scriptura cum Spiritus Sancti.
>> I assume you meant "Sola Scriptura cum Spiritus Sancti." We had part
>> of this discussion a couple of years ago.
>No.
So you don't know Latin grammar. You could look it up--tons of Google
sites show that "sola" is the adjective form that agrees in gender and
case with "scriptura."
>Here the Solus refers to "Scriptura cum Spiritus Sancti" and not just
>to Scriptura.
Ungrammatical--that is like claiming that " Old man John with a cold"
is different grammatically from "Old man John," and that it requires a
different adjective like "Old woman John."
>> And here again, you distort what that means: "Only Scripture, with
>> the Holy Spirit/Spirit of Holiness."
>What this eseentially means is "Only the living Word of GOD."
No, it essentially means "the Written Word," from the Latin word for
writing.
>This would be equivalent to:
>Solus Christus.
No, because "solus" does agree grammatically with "christus," but
"solus" does not agree with "scriptura."
>"Only Christ."
>Christ is afterall the living Word of GOD.
No, that's comparing a metaphorical description of Jesus (and a badly
misinterpreted one) with a written document.
>> You no longer use Scripture as the basis of your interpretations but
>> attribute everything only to the Holy Spirit
>Incorrect.
Obviously correct--your every allusion to Scripture betrays your
misuse of the written texts, such as your "casting of lots" fixation.

Signature
Don Kirkman
donsno2@charter.net
Andrew B. Chung, MD/PhD - 23 Feb 2009 23:44 GMT
> Andrew, in the Holy Spirit, boldly wrote:
>>> Andrew, in the Holy Spirit, boldly wrote:
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
>
> Which is exactly what I said you were implying.
Usenet remains text-based where much is written and posted instead of
being said.
> I posted cites from two grammars showing that your statement is false.
The discerning have seen only that you continue to be guided by the
spirit of error (self) into falsehood.
May GOD soften your heart so that you come to trust the truth, Who is
Jesus:
http://T3WIJ.com
Amen.
Love in the truth,
Andrew <><
--
Jesus is LORD, forever ! ! !
http://JiL4ever.net