"Ian Stirling" <root@mauve.demon.co.uk> wrote...

I've never heard of such a thing, though it probably occurs with other
viruses.  The problem with HIV is that it infects IMMUNE SYSTEM cells.
Therefore, the normal immune system response that sends out cells to
identify the intruder would lead to infection.  The very process where
the cell merges with the pathogen to identify it for antibody
production would mean the cell would be infected.

Yes.  Check out:

1. Kaul et al J Immunol. 2000 Feb 1;164(3):1602-11. "HIV-1-specific
mucosal CD8+ lymphocyte responses in the cervix of HIV-1-resistant
prostitutes in Nairobi."

2. Kaul et alJ Clin Invest. 2001 May;107(10):1303-10. "CD8(+)
lymphocytes respond to different HIV epitopes in seronegative and
infected subjects."

3. Kaul et al J Clin Invest. 2001 Feb;107(3):341-9. "Late
seroconversion in HIV-resistant Nairobi prostitutes despite
pre-existing
HIV-specific CD8+ responses."

It's unusual and doesn't last forever, but is pretty well documented.
Clearly the antigen-presenting cells that are infected at the mucosal
surface are around long enough to evoke some kind of immune response
but there isn't enough virus to initiate an infection.  I suppose it's
possible that it's an antigen-evoked response without any actual
replication going on at all.  That's speculation though - I'd expect
that to act via MHC-II and result in antibody responses, rather than
MHC-I and give CD8 T cell responses.

Cheers

Bennett